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Dr. Haritha ChiramanaMD, DMSenior medical oncologist & hemato-oncologistNellore Patient guides Book a Consultation
For health professionals. This section uses clinical terms and is general education for doctors, nurses and students, not advice for an individual patient. Patients and families: please read our patient guides instead, Cancer Myth Busters · Understanding your cancer report · Living through cancer treatment, or speak with your own doctor.
← Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia mini review

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia: MCQ bank

90 clinical-vignette questions in three levels: 30 basics, 30 applied and innovative, and 30 challenging (28 Diagnosis, 55 Treatment, 7 Survivorship; 3 built on schematic imaging, endoscopy or histology drawings). Practise question by question with instant marking, or take a timed mock test with a result summary by topic, level and section. You can also print the page as a booklet.

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Topic

Level 1 · Basics

Core facts for NEET-PG and USMLE Step 1–2: histology, risk factors, presentation, staging and first-line principles.

Q1DiagnosisLevel 1At a glance

In adults with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), roughly how are B and T lineage cases divided?

  1. AAbout 50% each
  2. BAbout 75% B, 25% T
  3. CAbout 25% B, 75% T
  4. DOver 99% B
  5. EAbout 90% T
Show answer

Answer: B. B-ALL is about three-quarters and T-ALL about a quarter of adult ALL. T-ALL peaks in adolescents and young adults, with a 2:1 male excess.

Review: section 01

Q2DiagnosisLevel 1At a glance

Which age pattern fits ALL?

  1. AMainly people over 80, rarely younger
  2. BEqually common at every age of life
  3. COnly adults aged between 30 and 50
  4. DOnly infants under one year of age
  5. EMostly children; second peak after 60
Show answer

Answer: E. Three-quarters of B-ALL occurs before age 6; there is a second peak after 60. In children it is the commonest cancer, and more than 90% are cured.

Review: section 01

Q3DiagnosisLevel 1At a glance

A patient has a mediastinal mass of lymphoblasts and 8% marrow blasts. What is the diagnosis?

  1. AAcute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  2. BClassic Hodgkin lymphoma
  3. CAcute myeloid leukaemia
  4. DThymic carcinoma
  5. ELymphoblastic lymphoma
Show answer

Answer: E. Leukaemia and lymphoblastic lymphoma are the same disease: ≥20% marrow blasts = ALL (with or without a mass); a mass with <20% marrow blasts = LBL. It is treated on the ALL protocol of that lineage.

Review: section 01

Q4DiagnosisLevel 1ImageScreening, workup & staging

This schematic blood film shows many small-to-medium blasts with scant, granule-free cytoplasm. Which test decides whether they are lymphoid or myeloid?

Schematic drawing · not a patient image
  1. AFlow cytometry (immunophenotype)
  2. BKaryotype alone
  3. CSerum LDH
  4. DAntigen-receptor gene rearrangement
  5. EMorphology alone
Show answer

Answer: A. Immunophenotype decides lineage. Antigen-receptor gene rearrangements are not lineage-specific, and morphology cannot reliably separate lymphoblasts from myeloblasts.

Review: section 03

Q5DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

Which pair of findings is typical of lymphoblasts?

  1. ASurface immunoglobulin and MYC rearrangement
  2. BTdT positive, myeloperoxidase negative
  3. CAuer rods and CD117
  4. DTdT negative, myeloperoxidase positive
  5. EBoth TdT and myeloperoxidase positive
Show answer

Answer: B. Lymphoblasts are TdT-positive and MPO-negative. Myeloperoxidase or Auer rods point to AML; surface immunoglobulin with MYC rearrangement (TdT-negative) points to Burkitt.

Review: section 03

Q6DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

Which markers define B lineage in ALL?

  1. ACD13, CD33, CD117 and MPO
  2. BCytoplasmic CD3 with CD7 and CD5
  3. CCD41 and CD61 on megakaryoblasts
  4. DCD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22
  5. ECD138 and CD38 on plasma cells
Show answer

Answer: D. B lineage: CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a and CD22. T lineage: cytoplasmic or surface CD3 with CD7. CD20 is present on more than 10–20% of blasts in about 40% of B-ALL.

Review: section 03

Q7DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

Which markers define T lineage in ALL?

  1. ACD19 with CD10 and CD79a
  2. BCytoplasmic or surface CD3 with CD7
  3. CCD13 with CD33 and CD117
  4. DCD34 with HLA-DR and nothing else
  5. ECD20 with CD5 and CD23
Show answer

Answer: B. T-ALL is defined by CD3 (cytoplasmic or surface) with CD7. It more often has a mediastinal mass, a high white count, CNS and testicular involvement.

Review: section 03

Q8DiagnosisLevel 1ImagePresentation, traps & genetics

A 19-year-old man has cough, breathlessness when lying flat and a swollen face. This is his schematic chest X-ray. What is the key safety step?

Rmass widththoracic diameterSchematic drawing · not a patient image
  1. AStart a full course of anti-tuberculosis treatment
  2. BBronchoscopy under general anaesthesia today
  3. CCT-guided biopsy with the patient lying flat
  4. DAssess airway, SVC and pericardium before sedation
  5. EArrange mediastinoscopy before any imaging
Show answer

Answer: D. An anterior mediastinal mass (T-ALL/T-LBL in 50–75% of T-ALL) can obstruct the airway, SVC or cause tamponade. Image first, and take the diagnosis from the least invasive source: blood, marrow or pleural fluid.

Review: section 02

Q9DiagnosisLevel 1Presentation, traps & genetics

A 7-year-old has a limp, joint pain and a low platelet count. What should you consider?

  1. AA sprain only
  2. BGrowing pains only
  3. CLeukaemia rather than arthritis alone
  4. DVitamin D deficiency only
  5. EJuvenile arthritis only, without further tests
Show answer

Answer: C. Bone pain, limp or joint pain with odd counts may be leukaemia. Bone pain and large nodes point to ALL rather than AML.

Review: section 02

Q10DiagnosisLevel 1Presentation, traps & genetics

Which constitutional condition is associated with a higher risk of ALL?

  1. ACystic fibrosis
  2. BDown syndrome
  3. CTurner syndrome
  4. DHaemophilia A
  5. EMarfan syndrome
Show answer

Answer: B. Associations include ionising radiation, Down syndrome and other constitutional disorders, rare familial variants (PAX5, ETV6, TP53) and common inherited polymorphisms.

Review: section 02

Q11DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

Why is BCR::ABL1 sent on the first day in a new adult with ALL?

  1. AIt is needed before any blood transfusion
  2. BIt confirms T lineage
  3. CIt decides the CNS grade
  4. DIt predicts allergy to asparaginase
  5. EIt changes induction within days
Show answer

Answer: E. Ph-positive ALL needs a TKI from day 1 to the end of treatment, so BCR::ABL1 (RT-PCR or FISH) must be known within days.

Review: section 03

Q12DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

About what proportion of adult ALL is Philadelphia-positive?

  1. AAbout 5%
  2. B75%
  3. C25–30%
  4. DAll cases
  5. EUnder 1%
Show answer

Answer: C. Ph+ is 25–30% of adults (about half in older adults) and about 5% of children. Ph-like ALL adds up to one-third of adult B-ALL.

Review: section 03

Q13DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

When is the diagnostic lumbar puncture usually done in ALL?

  1. ABefore any blood test is done, on the day of admission
  2. BAt the end of maintenance, to confirm cure
  3. COnly at relapse, never at the time of diagnosis
  4. DOnly if the patient develops a headache during treatment
  5. EOnce blood blasts have cleared, with the first intrathecal
Show answer

Answer: E. Every patient needs a lumbar puncture, generally once blood blasts have cleared, with platelets and clotting corrected. Neurological signs need urgent imaging and LP.

Review: section 03

Q14DiagnosisLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

How is CNS-3 disease defined?

  1. ABlasts with ≥5 WBC/µL in the fluid, or a cranial nerve palsy
  2. BA raised CSF protein alone, without any lymphoblasts
  3. CLymphoblasts with fewer than 5 WBC/µL in the spinal fluid
  4. DAny headache during induction, whatever the fluid shows
  5. ENo lymphoblasts at all in the spinal fluid sample
Show answer

Answer: A. CNS-1: no blasts; CNS-2: blasts with <5 WBC/µL; CNS-3: blasts with ≥5 WBC/µL or a cranial nerve palsy. CNS-3 needs more frequent intrathecal therapy until the fluid clears.

Review: section 03

Q15TreatmentLevel 1Screening, workup & staging

A 22-year-old man is about to start ALL treatment. Which is offered before treatment?

  1. AFertility counselling and sperm banking
  2. BTestosterone injections
  3. CNothing, as induction always causes sterility
  4. DOrchidectomy
  5. EVasectomy
Show answer

Answer: A. Fertility counselling and sperm banking are offered; induction does not usually cause sterility in younger patients. Echo, ECG, viral serology, pregnancy test and HLA typing are also done.

Review: section 03

Q16TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

Which induction is preferred for a fit 25-year-old with Ph-negative ALL?

  1. AImatinib with a steroid alone, without chemotherapy
  2. BVenetoclax with azacitidine, as in older adults
  3. CLow-dose cytarabine given under the skin
  4. DAllogeneic transplant without any induction
  5. EA paediatric-inspired, asparaginase-rich regimen
Show answer

Answer: E. Up to about 40, paediatric-inspired regimens cure 60–80%. Older adult-type regimens gave 5-year survival near 30%.

Review: section 06

Q17TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

A 45-year-old has CD20-positive B-ALL (CD20 on 40% of blasts). What is added to induction?

  1. AMidostaurin
  2. BNelarabine
  3. CGemtuzumab
  4. DImatinib
  5. ERituximab
Show answer

Answer: E. Adding at least 8 doses of rituximab for CD20+ B-ALL in patients under 65 improved 4-year EFS (55% vs 43%) in GRAALL-2005/R.

Review: section 06

Q18TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

How long is a TKI given in Ph-positive ALL?

  1. AOnly after an allogeneic transplant
  2. BOnly at relapse
  3. COnly during induction
  4. DFrom day 1, through every phase
  5. EOnly if the BCR::ABL1 level starts to rise
Show answer

Answer: D. A TKI is essential but not enough on its own: it is paired with a steroid or chemotherapy and continued through every phase, and for at least a year after transplant.

Review: section 06

Q19TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

After induction, MRD is 10⁻³ (0.1%) in a fit 35-year-old with Ph-negative B-ALL. What next?

  1. AMaintenance tablets only
  2. BRepeat induction with the same drugs only
  3. CBlinatumomab, then allogeneic transplant
  4. DCranial radiotherapy alone
  5. EStop treatment and watch
Show answer

Answer: C. MRD ≥10⁻⁴ after induction is high risk: one or two cycles of blinatumomab (78% became MRD-negative in BLAST) and then allogeneic HCT if eligible.

Review: section 06

Q20TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

What does blinatumomab target?

  1. ACD19 and CD3
  2. BBCR::ABL1 kinase
  3. CCD20 alone
  4. DCD33 and CD3
  5. ECD22 alone
Show answer

Answer: A. Blinatumomab is a bispecific T-cell engager (CD19×CD3). It can cause cytokine release syndrome and neurotoxicity.

Review: section 06

Q21TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

Inotuzumab ozogamicin is an antibody-drug conjugate against which antigen?

  1. ACD19
  2. BCD30
  3. CCD20
  4. DCD33
  5. ECD22
Show answer

Answer: E. CD22 is present on more than 90% of B-ALL. Inotuzumab carries a risk of hepatic veno-occlusive disease, especially just before a transplant.

Review: section 06

Q22TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

How long does ALL maintenance usually last, and what does it contain?

  1. A≥2 years: daily 6-MP, weekly methotrexate
  2. BNone: maintenance is not needed after consolidation
  3. COne month of high-dose steroids, then nothing
  4. DSix months of weekly injections in hospital
  5. ELifelong daily TKI tablets for every patient
Show answer

Answer: A. Maintenance is low-intensity treatment at home for at least 2 years, often with vincristine–steroid pulses. Outcomes are better when counts are kept suppressed.

Review: section 06

Q23TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

Counts fall sharply on standard 6-mercaptopurine doses. Which test explains this?

  1. AG6PD activity
  2. BTPMT and NUDT15
  3. CHLA typing
  4. DAntithrombin level
  5. EBCR::ABL1 PCR
Show answer

Answer: B. Variants in TPMT or NUDT15 reduce thiopurine breakdown and cause marked myelosuppression; the dose is adjusted (CPIC 2019).

Review: section 06

Q24TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

How is the tumour lysis risk of ALL classified?

  1. AHigh only in T-ALL
  2. BNever low: high or intermediate
  3. CLow unless the patient is over 60
  4. DUnrelated to white count or LDH
  5. EAlways low
Show answer

Answer: B. ALL with WBC ≥100,000/µL or LDH ≥2× the upper limit is high risk (fluids plus rasburicase); all other ALL is intermediate risk (fluids plus allopurinol).

Review: section 06

Q25TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

Which complication is especially linked with asparaginase?

  1. AVenous thrombosis
  2. BPeripheral neuropathy with foot drop
  3. CPulmonary fibrosis on lung function
  4. DHearing loss at high frequencies
  5. EPleural effusion from capillary leak
Show answer

Answer: A. Asparaginase lowers antithrombin, protein C/S and fibrinogen: thrombosis occurs in 14% of adults. It also causes allergy, pancreatitis and liver problems.

Review: section 06

Q26TreatmentLevel 1Systemic therapy

Why are azole antifungals avoided around vincristine doses where possible?

  1. AThey trigger tumour lysis during induction
  2. BThey make vincristine ineffective
  3. CThey worsen neuropathy and ileus
  4. DThey cause effusions
  5. EThey inactivate asparaginase in the blood
Show answer

Answer: C. Azoles raise vincristine levels, causing severe neuropathy and ileus. Some Indian centres stop voriconazole for 24 hours before each dose.

Review: section 06

Q27TreatmentLevel 1Local therapy

Testicular involvement has not resolved by the end of induction. What is done?

  1. ACranial radiotherapy only
  2. BTesticular biopsy every month
  3. CRadiotherapy 24 Gy to both testes
  4. DNo further action
  5. EOrchidectomy of the involved testis
Show answer

Answer: C. RT 24 Gy to both testes is given, usually with the first maintenance cycle. The testes are examined at diagnosis in every male.

Review: section 05

Q28SurvivorshipLevel 1Survivorship

Which late effect is particularly linked with dexamethasone in adolescents?

  1. APulmonary fibrosis
  2. BOsteonecrosis
  3. CCataract only in infants
  4. DHearing loss
  5. EKidney stones
Show answer

Answer: B. Other late effects: neuropathy (vincristine), cognitive and endocrine effects (especially after cranial RT), cardiomyopathy (anthracyclines), infertility, obesity, abnormal glucose metabolism and second cancers.

Review: section 08

Q29SurvivorshipLevel 1Survivorship

What is the advice on vaccines during ALL chemotherapy?

  1. AVaccines are needed only 10 years after treatment
  2. BOnly the BCG vaccine, repeated each year
  3. CNo live vaccines; influenza vaccine for the family
  4. DNo vaccines at all for anyone in the household
  5. EAll live vaccines should be given at once to protect
Show answer

Answer: C. Pneumocystis prophylaxis is given during therapy; after transplant, revaccination follows the transplant protocol.

Review: section 08

Q30SurvivorshipLevel 1Survivorship

In Indian ALL series, how common are non-adherence and abandonment of treatment?

  1. AAbout 50%
  2. BAbout 75%
  3. C11–15%
  4. D1%
  5. EThey do not occur
Show answer

Answer: C. Maintenance runs for 2–3 years at home, so adherence is treatment. Social workers, counsellors and a written plan help.

Review: section 08

Level 2 · Applied & innovative

Clinical reasoning: calculations (pack-years, risk scores, NNT), imaging and laboratory findings, reading trial results, sequencing traps.

Q31DiagnosisLevel 2ImageScreening, workup & staging

These schematic flow cytometry plots are from marrow blasts. What is the diagnosis?

CD19 →CD10 →Gated blastsTdT →MPO →Gated blastsSchematic drawing · not a patient image
  1. AT-lymphoblastic leukaemia
  2. BBurkitt leukaemia
  3. CB-lymphoblastic leukaemia
  4. DAcute myeloid leukaemia
  5. EChronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Show answer

Answer: C. The blasts are CD19+ CD10+ and TdT+ MPO−: B-lymphoblasts. Burkitt cells are TdT-negative with surface immunoglobulin; AML blasts are MPO-positive; T-ALL lacks CD19.

Review: section 03

Q32DiagnosisLevel 2Screening, workup & staging

Blasts are CD19+, cytoplasmic CD79a+, MPO− and also express CD13 and CD33. What is the diagnosis?

  1. AMixed-phenotype leukaemia by definition
  2. BB-ALL
  3. CAML, because CD13 and CD33 are present
  4. DCML in chronic phase
  5. ET-ALL with aberrant B markers
Show answer

Answer: B. Myeloid markers (CD13, CD33) do not exclude B-ALL; myeloperoxidase does. Mixed-phenotype leukaemia and CML in lymphoid blast phase are differentials.

Review: section 03

Q33DiagnosisLevel 2Screening, workup & staging

Leukaemic cells are TdT-negative, carry surface immunoglobulin and have a MYC rearrangement. What is this?

  1. AMixed-phenotype leukaemia
  2. BBurkitt lymphoma/leukaemia
  3. CEarly T-cell precursor ALL
  4. DPh-like ALL
  5. EPro-B ALL
Show answer

Answer: B. Burkitt cells are mature B cells and are treated differently (see the aggressive B-cell module), not on an ALL protocol.

Review: section 03

Q34DiagnosisLevel 2Screening, workup & staging

A mediastinal mass contains many immature T cells. Which finding favours a type B1 thymoma over T-LBL?

  1. AA raised LDH with high uric acid
  2. BA monoclonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement
  3. CKeratin-positive epithelium, polyclonal thymocytes
  4. DA marrow aspirate with 25% lymphoblasts
  5. ETdT-positive cells growing in confluent sheets
Show answer

Answer: C. Thymomas contain keratin-positive epithelium and polyclonal thymocytes of all stages. Indolent T-lymphoblastic proliferation is also TdT-positive but non-clonal.

Review: section 03

Q35DiagnosisLevel 2Screening, workup & staging

The diagnostic lumbar puncture is traumatic and blood contains blasts. When is it called CNS-3?

  1. ANever: a traumatic tap cannot ever be graded
  2. BOnly if a cranial nerve palsy develops later on
  3. CWhen the CSF glucose is lower than the blood glucose
  4. DCSF WBC:RBC ratio ≥2× the blood ratio
  5. EWhenever any blast is seen
Show answer

Answer: D. This rule separates true CNS disease from contamination. CNS-3 needs more frequent intrathecal therapy until the fluid clears.

Review: section 03

Q36DiagnosisLevel 2Local therapy

How should the marrow sample for MRD be taken at count recovery?

  1. AAspirates pooled from both iliac crests
  2. BPeripheral blood only, in every B-ALL
  3. CA trephine in formalin, without aspirate
  4. DThe last 20 mL of the aspirate pull
  5. EThe first 2–5 mL of the aspirate
Show answer

Answer: E. Later pulls are diluted with blood, which can turn a positive MRD falsely negative. In B-ALL blood is 1–3 logs less sensitive than marrow.

Review: section 05

Q37DiagnosisLevel 2Biomarkers

Which MRD method can detect one leukaemic cell among a million?

  1. AFlow cytometry with 6–8 colours
  2. BKaryotype
  3. CNGS of Ig/TCR rearrangements
  4. DRoutine microscopy
  5. EExpert microscopy
Show answer

Answer: C. Microscopy sees about 1 in 20, expert microscopy 1 in 100, flow 1 in 10,000, RQ-PCR 1 in 100,000 and NGS 1 in 1,000,000. "MRD-negative" needs an assay that reaches 10⁻⁴.

Review: section 04

Q38DiagnosisLevel 2Biomarkers

Why should the first diagnostic sample be kept?

  1. APCR MRD needs the clone's own Ig/TCR markers
  2. BIt is needed to repeat the karyotype every month
  3. CIt confirms the HLA type for the donor search
  4. DIt is used to grow a personal cancer vaccine
  5. ELaboratories must legally keep it for 50 years
Show answer

Answer: A. RQ-PCR for Ig/TCR rearrangements is designed on the patient's own leukaemia clone at diagnosis.

Review: section 04

Q39DiagnosisLevel 2Biomarkers

Which statement about Ph-like ALL is correct?

  1. AIt is a favourable subtype with excellent results
  2. BIt always carries the BCR::ABL1 fusion gene
  3. CIt occurs only in young children, never in adults
  4. DBCR::ABL1-like expression without the fusion
  5. EIt is a subtype of T-ALL defined by NOTCH1
Show answer

Answer: D. Most cases carry kinase-activating changes (ABL-class, JAK2, CRLF2). It is up to one-third of adult B-ALL, high risk, and commoner in people of Hispanic ancestry; trials of ABL/JAK inhibitors are under way.

Review: section 04

Q40DiagnosisLevel 2Biomarkers

Which feature makes Ph-negative B-ALL high risk under the modified Hoelzer criteria?

  1. AWhite count 45,000/µL
  2. BCD10-positive (common) phenotype
  3. CWhite count 20,000/µL
  4. DAge 30
  5. ERemission reached by week 3
Show answer

Answer: A. High risk (any one): age over 60, WBC >30,000/µL (B) or >100,000/µL (T), t(4;11) or t(1;19), Ph-like signature, pro-B (CD10-negative) blasts, more than 4 weeks to remission, MRD ≥10⁻⁴ after induction.

Review: section 04

Q41TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

In E1910, what did adding blinatumomab to consolidation do for adults in MRD-negative remission?

  1. AReplaced the need for maintenance
  2. BLowered survival because of neurotoxicity
  3. CMade no difference
  4. DRaised 3-year survival from 68% to 85%
  5. EHelped only Ph-positive patients
Show answer

Answer: D. Grade ≥3 neuropsychiatric events were 23% vs 5%. UpToDate applies this to all patients in remission, whatever the MRD.

Review: section 06

Q42TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

A 68-year-old with Ph-positive ALL is not fit for intensive chemotherapy. Which approach fits?

  1. AA TKI with a steroid or gentle chemotherapy
  2. BHyper-CVAD without a TKI, at reduced intensity
  3. CRituximab alone, given weekly for a month
  4. DSupportive care only, as cure is not possible
  5. EAllogeneic transplant at once, before any TKI
Show answer

Answer: A. In older patients, dasatinib with low-intensity chemotherapy gave CR 96% and 5-year survival 36%. Chemotherapy-free dasatinib with a steroid, then blinatumomab, is also possible.

Review: section 06

Q43TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

In Ph-positive ALL on dasatinib, BCR::ABL1 MRD starts to rise. What is done?

  1. AStop all TKIs and watch the counts closely
  2. BAdd rituximab to the dasatinib and continue
  3. CContinue the same TKI
  4. DGive cranial radiotherapy as the next step
  5. EMutation test and a TKI switch
Show answer

Answer: E. Relapses on dasatinib often carry T315I, which ponatinib covers. Falling MRD in a fit patient leads to transplant; rising MRD needs a mutation test and a switch.

Review: section 06

Q44TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

A patient with Ph-positive ALL has a history of pleural effusions and heart failure. Which TKI is best avoided?

  1. APonatinib
  2. BImatinib
  3. CNone, all are equivalent
  4. DDasatinib
  5. EAny TKI must be avoided
Show answer

Answer: D. Dasatinib is favoured for its CNS penetration but avoided with effusions, bleeding or heart failure. Imatinib is generic and cheaper but slower; ponatinib covers T315I at the cost of arterial events.

Review: section 06

Q45TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

After allogeneic transplant for Ph-positive ALL, how long is the TKI continued?

  1. AOnly if GVHD develops
  2. BAt least 1 year
  3. CIt is never used after transplant
  4. DOnly 1 month
  5. EIt is stopped on the day of transplant
Show answer

Answer: B. Without transplant, a TKI plus low-intensity maintenance is given for 24–30 months.

Review: section 06

Q46TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

A fit 40-year-old has first relapse of Ph-negative B-ALL; blasts are CD19+ and CD22+. Which first salvage became standard?

  1. ABlinatumomab or inotuzumab, then transplant
  2. BA TKI alone, as in Ph-positive disease
  3. CThe original induction regimen repeated at once
  4. DPalliative care only, as cure is not possible
  5. ENelarabine-based chemotherapy as first salvage
Show answer

Answer: A. TOWER and INO-VATE made antibodies the standard first salvage for B-ALL. Allogeneic HCT follows for the fit, best when MRD-negative.

Review: section 06

Q47TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

Why is inotuzumab given, if possible, not immediately before an allogeneic transplant?

  1. AIt causes severe graft-versus-host disease
  2. BIt causes severe neuropathy after transplant
  3. CIt destroys the donor T cells in the graft
  4. DHigher risk of liver veno-occlusive disease
  5. EIt prevents the donor cells from engrafting
Show answer

Answer: D. In INO-VATE, VOD occurred in 9% vs 1%, and in 10 of 48 transplanted patients. Plan the sequence with the transplant team; ursodeoxycholic acid prophylaxis and defibrotide for severe VOD.

Review: section 06

Q48TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

B-ALL relapses after CD19 CAR-T therapy. Which test is essential before choosing the next treatment?

  1. ATPMT and NUDT15 testing before any treatment
  2. BA serum IgG level to plan immunoglobulin
  3. CA repeat lumbar puncture
  4. DA chest X-ray to look for a mediastinal mass
  5. ERecheck CD19, CD22 and CD20
Show answer

Answer: E. Antigen-negative relapses follow antibody and CAR-T therapy. KMT2A-rearranged relapse → revumenib; others → chemotherapy by fitness.

Review: section 06

Q49TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

Relapsed ALL with a KMT2A rearrangement can be treated with which drug?

  1. AImatinib
  2. BATRA
  3. CRevumenib
  4. DIvosidenib
  5. ERituximab
Show answer

Answer: C. In AUGMENT-101, revumenib gave responses in 63% (CR 23%) of 57 patients, with differentiation syndrome in 16%.

Review: section 06

Q50TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

T-ALL relapses in a 30-year-old. Which approach fits?

  1. ABlinatumomab, then transplant if in remission
  2. BNelarabine-based chemotherapy, then transplant
  3. CA TKI alone, continued for at least two years
  4. DInotuzumab, then transplant if in remission
  5. ERituximab with chemotherapy, then maintenance
Show answer

Answer: B. Inotuzumab and blinatumomab target B-cell antigens (CD22, CD19), so they do not work in T-ALL. After relapse, survival in adult T-ALL is poor without transplant.

Review: section 06

Q51TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

Which approach is suggested for an older, unfit adult with T-ALL?

  1. ABlinatumomab alone
  2. BMini-hyper-CVD with venetoclax
  3. CRituximab-based chemotherapy
  4. DInotuzumab with dexamethasone
  5. ESupportive care is the only option
Show answer

Answer: B. This is expert opinion; inotuzumab does not work without CD22. For frail patients, vincristine with prednisone or POMP can control the disease for a time.

Review: section 06

Q52TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

Which preparation is needed before high-dose methotrexate?

  1. AWithhold leucovorin until day 7, then start it
  2. BRestrict fluids to protect the kidneys from overload
  3. CGive a PPI and an NSAID for comfort during it
  4. DLeave effusions in place and drain them afterwards
  5. EHydrate, alkalinise, drain effusions, stop PPIs
Show answer

Answer: E. Effusions act as a reservoir and delay clearance. Levels are monitored, leucovorin rescue given, and glucarpidase used within 48–60 hours when levels stay high with kidney injury.

Review: section 06

Q53TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

What does ISTH guidance suggest during asparaginase treatment in adults?

  1. AStop asparaginase in every adult, whatever the risk
  2. BNo measures, because clots never occur with asparaginase
  3. CPlatelet transfusions to keep the count above 200,000/µL
  4. DLMW heparin if platelets ≥30,000/µL; replace low antithrombin
  5. EFull-dose warfarin for everyone from the first day of induction
Show answer

Answer: D. Thrombosis occurs in 14% of adults, about half catheter-related. The evidence for prophylaxis is retrospective and mixed.

Review: section 06

Q54TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

A cerebral sinus thrombosis develops during asparaginase treatment. What is done?

  1. AHold asparaginase; LMW heparin; consider resuming later
  2. BStop all ALL treatment permanently and observe
  3. CContinue asparaginase unchanged and add daily aspirin
  4. DGive fresh frozen plasma only, with no anticoagulant
  5. EStart thrombolysis in every case, whatever the bleeding risk
Show answer

Answer: A. VTE is treated with LMW heparin (anti-Xa monitoring) for at least 6 months; asparaginase is held for cerebral sinus thrombosis, large PE, proximal DVT or arterial clots.

Review: section 06

Q55TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

In tumour lysis prevention during steroid-based ALL induction, which fluid is favoured?

  1. ANo fluids, to avoid overload
  2. BHypotonic dextrose-saline
  3. CHypertonic saline
  4. DNormal saline only, in large volumes
  5. EPotassium-rich fluids
Show answer

Answer: B. Steroids retain sodium, so hypotonic dextrose-saline is favoured. High-risk patients also get rasburicase (not in G6PD deficiency).

Review: section 06

Q56TreatmentLevel 2Local therapy

Where should the diagnosis come from in a patient with a large mediastinal mass and a pleural effusion?

  1. ABlood, marrow or pleural fluid
  2. BOpen mediastinal biopsy under general anaesthesia
  3. CMediastinoscopy before any imaging is done
  4. DA core biopsy, supine and sedated
  5. EThoracotomy
Show answer

Answer: A. Biopsy a node or mediastinal mass only when blood, marrow or an effusion cannot give the diagnosis.

Review: section 05

Q57TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

A 55-year-old with Ph-negative B-ALL is fit. Which induction options fit current guidance for 40–65 years?

  1. AImatinib alone, continued for at least two years
  2. BVenetoclax with azacitidine, as in older AML
  3. CWatchful waiting until symptoms or cytopenias worsen
  4. DAn asparaginase regimen or hyper-CVAD (± rituximab)
  5. ELow-dose cytarabine given under the skin monthly
Show answer

Answer: D. Asparaginase regimens bring liver, pancreas and clotting problems; hyper-CVAD more neutropenia and admissions.

Review: section 06

Q58TreatmentLevel 2Systemic therapy

In GRAALL, which patients benefited from allogeneic transplant in first remission?

  1. AOnly those with MRD below 10⁻⁵ after induction
  2. BMRD ≥10⁻³ (HR 0.43), not those below
  3. CEveryone in first remission, whatever the MRD
  4. DOnly patients over 70 with high-risk genetics
  5. ENobody: transplant gave no benefit to any group
Show answer

Answer: B. Dhédin 2015. Many also favour HCT for t(4;11), complex karyotype, low hypodiploidy/near-triploidy, TP53 or WBC >70,000/µL.

Review: section 06

Q59SurvivorshipLevel 2Survivorship

In remission, a single follow-up MRD test is low-level positive. What is correct?

  1. AIt means the laboratory test must be faulty
  2. BMRD results are never useful once induction is over
  3. CNot relapse by itself; act if persistent or rising
  4. DIt needs an immediate transplant without any repeat
  5. EIt always means relapse: start salvage therapy today
Show answer

Answer: C. MRD levels fluctuate; reappearance should be confirmed on a second sample. Persistent or rising MRD triggers a donor search and closer monitoring.

Review: section 08

Q60SurvivorshipLevel 2Survivorship

After ALL treatment ends, how often are CBC and liver tests done in the first year?

  1. AEvery 5 years
  2. BEvery 1–2 months
  3. CEvery week
  4. DOnly if symptoms appear
  5. EOnce a year
Show answer

Answer: B. Then every 3–6 months in the second year and every 6–12 months after that. A final marrow with MRD is done at the end of maintenance.

Review: section 08

Level 3 · Challenging

DNB, DM and USMLE Step 3 level: landmark trials, newer targeted drugs and difficult decisions.

Q61TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In CALGB 10403 (295 patients aged 17–39 on a paediatric regimen), what was 3-year survival?

  1. A50%
  2. B30%
  3. C15%
  4. D73%
  5. E95%
Show answer

Answer: D. Treatment deaths were 3%; a quarter had raised liver enzymes and 5% thromboses. It showed that adult oncologists can safely deliver a paediatric regimen.

Review: section 06

Q62TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

Across 23 observational studies of adolescents and young adults, how did paediatric-type regimens compare?

  1. ANo difference in survival or treatment deaths
  2. BWorse survival, more deaths
  3. CBetter survival only in T-ALL, not in B-ALL
  4. DBetter survival only after allogeneic transplant
  5. EBetter 5-year survival (HR 1.40)
Show answer

Answer: E. Indian AYA series report 40–60% survival on BFM-type protocols.

Review: section 06

Q63TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In GRAALL-2005 (an asparaginase regimen), what were CR and 5-year survival?

  1. ACR 70%, 5-year survival 30%
  2. BCR 92%, 5-year survival 92%
  3. CCR 92%, 5-year survival 59%
  4. DCR 99%, 5-year survival 90%
  5. ECR 50%, 5-year survival 20%
Show answer

Answer: C. Hyper-CVAD with rituximab gave CR 95% and 3-year survival 50%.

Review: section 06

Q64TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In GRAALL-2005/R, what did rituximab add for CD20+ B-ALL?

  1. A4-year EFS 85% vs 43%, with more deaths
  2. BBenefit only in T-ALL, not in B-ALL
  3. CNo benefit in event-free survival
  4. D4-year EFS 55% vs 43%
  5. EWorse survival from infections and toxicity
Show answer

Answer: D. At least 8 doses were given to patients under 65. In UKALL14, four doses without CD20 selection did not help.

Review: section 06

Q65TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In E1910 (224 adults aged 30–70 in MRD-negative CR), what was the hazard ratio for death with blinatumomab added?

  1. A2.00
  2. B0.10
  3. C0.41
  4. D0.95
  5. E1.41
Show answer

Answer: C. 3-year survival 85% vs 68%; 57% had high-risk features. Grade ≥3 neuropsychiatric events were 23% vs 5%.

Review: section 06

Q66TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In BLAST (113 MRD-positive patients), what did blinatumomab achieve?

  1. A78% became MRD-negative
  2. BAll patients were cured without any transplant
  3. C10% became MRD-negative
  4. DResponders survived for a shorter time than others
  5. EMRD levels were unchanged in most patients
Show answer

Answer: A. Blinatumomab is followed by allogeneic HCT in eligible patients.

Review: section 06

Q67TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In UKALL XII/ECOG 2993, what did sibling-donor transplant do in standard-risk ALL?

  1. ANo survival change and no extra non-relapse deaths
  2. BFewer non-relapse deaths and fewer relapses as well
  3. CWorse survival because of more relapses after transplant
  4. D5-year survival 62% vs 52%; more non-relapse deaths
  5. E5-year survival 90% vs 20%, with no extra deaths
Show answer

Answer: D. In high-risk disease, fewer relapses (37% vs 63%) were offset by non-relapse mortality (36% vs 14%). A meta-analysis confined the survival gain to patients under 35.

Review: section 06

Q68TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In a CIBMTR comparison (Seftel 2016), how did paediatric-inspired chemotherapy compare with matched allografts?

  1. ANo difference
  2. B4-year survival 73% vs 45%
  3. CTransplant was always better
  4. D4-year survival 20% vs 10%
  5. E4-year survival 45% vs 73%
Show answer

Answer: B. This and the meta-analysis explain why transplant in first remission is now guided by MRD and genetic risk.

Review: section 06

Q69TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In patients over 55 treated with inotuzumab plus dexamethasone (Stelljes 2024), which results were reported?

  1. ACR in 10%, 3-year survival only 5%
  2. BNo responses at all in this age group
  3. CCR in 85%, 3-year survival 56%, VOD 8%
  4. DCR in 50%, 3-year survival only 20%
  5. ECR in all 43, 3-year survival 73%
Show answer

Answer: E. Mini-hyper-CVD plus inotuzumab (median age 68) gave CR 85%, 3-year survival 56%, liver VOD 8% and treatment deaths 12% (Kantarjian 2018).

Review: section 06

Q70TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In COG AALL0434 (children and young adults up to 31), what did nelarabine add for T-ALL?

  1. ANo benefit in DFS or CNS relapse
  2. BMore CNS relapses with nelarabine added
  3. CBetter survival in adults over 60 only
  4. DDFS 50% vs 30%; CNS relapse unchanged
  5. EDFS 88% vs 82%; CNS relapse 1% vs 7%
Show answer

Answer: E. Nelarabine has not improved outcomes in adults; adding it to hyper-CVAD gave no benefit over historical controls.

Review: section 06

Q71TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In UKALL XII/ECOG 2993, what were CR and 5-year survival in 356 adults with T-ALL, and survival after relapse?

  1. ACR 94%, 5-year 48%; after relapse 6.5%
  2. BCR 50%, 5-year 10%; after relapse 50%
  3. CCR 20%, 5-year 5%
  4. DCR 99%, 5-year 90%; after relapse 80%
  5. ECR 94%, 5-year 94%
Show answer

Answer: A. Relapse is the main problem in adult T-ALL, so first-line treatment must be complete.

Review: section 06

Q72TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

What did a low-cost protocol at CMC Vellore achieve in 113 adults with T-ALL (Abraham 2014)?

  1. ANo long-term survivors
  2. B25% 1-year survival
  3. C51% 5-year survival
  4. D90% 5-year survival
  5. E10% 5-year survival
Show answer

Answer: C. Indian evidence also includes INwARD AYA data, Tata Memorial AYA on modified BFM-90 and KGMU Lucknow on BFM-95.

Review: section 06

Q73TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In GRAAPH-2005 (268 adults with Ph+ ALL), how did imatinib with vincristine–dexamethasone compare with imatinib plus hyper-CVAD?

  1. ABetter 5-year survival by about 30% overall
  2. BMore early deaths but better long-term survival
  3. CNo CRs at all without intensive hyper-CVAD
  4. DMore CRs and fewer early deaths; equal survival
  5. EFewer CRs and worse 5-year survival overall
Show answer

Answer: D. Ph+ ALL needs a TKI more than intensive chemotherapy.

Review: section 06

Q74TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In D-ALBA, what happened after chemotherapy-free dasatinib plus steroid induction when blinatumomab was given?

  1. AMRD negativity fell after blinatumomab
  2. BNo patient reached complete remission
  3. CBlinatumomab caused the T315I mutation
  4. DAll patients relapsed within a year
  5. EMRD negativity rose (29% → 60%)
Show answer

Answer: E. Dasatinib plus a steroid gave CR in 98% (LAL1205). Relapses on dasatinib often carry T315I.

Review: section 06

Q75TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In PhALLCON, how did ponatinib compare with imatinib in Ph-positive ALL?

  1. ANo difference
  2. BOnly effective without chemotherapy
  3. CMore MRD-negative CRs (34% vs 17%)
  4. DFewer MRD-negative CRs
  5. EWorse survival from infection
Show answer

Answer: C. With hyper-CVAD, ponatinib gave 3-year EFS 70% (Jabbour 2018), at a cost of arterial events.

Review: section 06

Q76TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In a retrospective study of 230 MRD-negative Ph+ ALL patients (Ghobadi 2022), how did transplant compare with continued consolidation?

  1. ATransplant halved survival
  2. BData were not reported
  3. CConsolidation was harmful
  4. DNo survival difference
  5. ETransplant doubled survival
Show answer

Answer: D. Falling MRD and fitness favour transplant; MRD-negative patients may finish consolidation or be transplanted.

Review: section 06

Q77TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In TOWER (405 adults with relapsed Ph-negative ALL), what was median survival with blinatumomab vs chemotherapy?

  1. A4.0 vs 7.7 months
  2. B12 vs 12 months
  3. C7.7 vs 4.0 months
  4. D39 vs 13 months
  5. E24 vs 8 months
Show answer

Answer: C. Quality of life was better; grade ≥3 CRS occurred in 5%.

Review: section 06

Q78TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In INO-VATE, which pair of results is correct for inotuzumab vs chemotherapy?

  1. ACR 50% vs 50%; no VOD
  2. BCR 29% vs 81%; VOD 1% vs 9%
  3. CCR 81% vs 29%; VOD 9% vs 1%
  4. DCR 98% vs 91%; VOD 0%
  5. ECR 36% vs 20%; VOD 40%
Show answer

Answer: C. MRD negativity was 78% vs 28% and 2-year survival 23% vs 10%; 10 of 48 transplanted patients developed VOD.

Review: section 06

Q79TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In AUGMENT-101 (57 patients with KMT2A-rearranged leukaemia), what did revumenib achieve?

  1. AResponse 63%, CR 23%
  2. BNo differentiation syndrome in any patient
  3. CCR 81%, with MRD negativity in 78%
  4. DResponse 100%, with CR in every patient
  5. EResponse 10%, no CRs
Show answer

Answer: A. Menin inhibitors are also approved for NPM1-mutated AML (see the AML module).

Review: section 06

Q80TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

In 118 adults with relapsed T-ALL treated with nelarabine-based chemotherapy (Candoni 2020), what were the results?

  1. ACR 81%; 2-year survival 23%
  2. BCR 5%; no survivors at 1 year
  3. CCR 63%; CR 23% with no relapses
  4. DCR 36%; 1-year survival 37%
  5. ECR 90%; 1-year survival 85%
Show answer

Answer: D. Transplant after remission offers the best chance in relapsed T-ALL.

Review: section 06

Q81TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

Which statement about CD19 CAR-T products for ALL is correct?

  1. AObecabtagene: much less severe CRS and ICANS
  2. BBrexucabtagene is approved only for young children
  3. CCAR-T products for ALL target CD22 alone
  4. DTisagenlecleucel is approved only for adults over 65
  5. ENexCAR19 is approved only in the United States
Show answer

Answer: A. Tisagenlecleucel is used up to 25 years (ELIANA), brexucabtagene in adults (ZUMA-3). NexCAR19 received CDSCO approval on 13 October 2023 for relapsed B-cell lymphoma and leukaemia. Trials differ, so products should not be ranked.

Review: section 06

Q82DiagnosisLevel 3Biomarkers

In the Berry 2017 meta-analysis of 39 studies, what was the hazard ratio for survival with MRD negativity in adults?

  1. A1.28
  2. B0.05
  3. C2.80
  4. D0.95
  5. E0.28
Show answer

Answer: E. In GMALL 07/2003, 5-year survival was 80% with MRD negativity by week 16 vs 42% without (Gökbuget 2012).

Review: section 04

Q83DiagnosisLevel 3Biomarkers

In one series of 148 adults, what was 5-year survival with Ph-like ALL compared with other Ph-negative B-ALL?

  1. A59% vs 23%
  2. B23% vs 59%
  3. C80% vs 85%
  4. D10% vs 12%
  5. E50% vs 50%
Show answer

Answer: B. Ph-like ALL is 10–13% of childhood, about 21% of adolescent and up to one-third of adult B-ALL. Targeted drugs are being tested in trials.

Review: section 04

Q84DiagnosisLevel 3Biomarkers

Which statement about adult T-ALL biology is correct?

  1. AETP-ALL is the commonest type of adult T-ALL
  2. BCDKN2A deletion is never found in T-ALL
  3. CTP53 mutation predicts an excellent response
  4. DNOTCH1/FBXW7 without RAS/PTEN: longer survival
  5. ET-ALL is driven mainly by the BCR::ABL1 fusion
Show answer

Answer: D. About half of adults have this favourable profile (Trinquand 2013). ETP-ALL (5–10%) depends on BCL-2, which is why venetoclax is studied; TP53 mutation (10–15%) predicts resistance.

Review: section 04

Q85DiagnosisLevel 3Screening, workup & staging

In 1,508 adults with ALL, how common was CNS disease at diagnosis, and how did it affect outcome?

  1. A5%; 90% reached remission; survival similar
  2. B25%; survival was halved by CNS disease
  3. C0%; CNS disease does not occur in adults
  4. D5%; none of them survived beyond a year
  5. E50%; most did not reach remission at all
Show answer

Answer: A. Without CNS-directed therapy more than half develop CNS leukaemia; with prophylaxis fewer than 20%.

Review: section 03

Q86TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

How common is asparaginase-related thrombosis in adults, and what is its link to central lines?

  1. AUnder 1%, and never related to central lines
  2. BAbout 14%; about half catheter-related
  3. CAbout 14%, and never related to central lines
  4. DIt occurs only in children, not in adults
  5. EAbout 50%, and nearly all of them arterial
Show answer

Answer: B. Mort 2025: catheters carry about half of asparaginase thromboses. Two- or three-lumen lines are placed at the start of treatment.

Review: section 06

Q87TreatmentLevel 3Local therapy

For CNS relapse of ALL, which radiotherapy is described?

  1. ACranial RT 24 Gy with ≥6 intrathecal treatments
  2. BNo RT; intrathecal therapy only, twice a week
  3. CWhole-body RT 2 Gy, then maintenance tablets
  4. DCraniospinal RT 54 Gy, with no intrathecal therapy
  5. ECranial RT 12 Gy alone, with no intrathecal therapy
Show answer

Answer: A. For CNS-3 at diagnosis, cranial RT (typically 18 Gy) can be added in later phases. Some Indian centres still give prophylactic cranial RT (12 Gy) to adults on BFM-type protocols, accepting the late effects.

Review: section 05

Q88SurvivorshipLevel 3Survivorship

In one Indian series, how did treatment delays affect relapse-free survival in ALL?

  1. AIt fell from 95% to 90%
  2. BIt rose from 43% to 69%
  3. CThere was no effect
  4. DIt fell to 0%
  5. EIt fell from 69% to 43%
Show answer

Answer: E. Abandonment (11–15%) and interruptions are major causes of failure; a written plan for the 2–3 years of treatment and social support help (Ganesan 2021).

Review: section 08

Q89SurvivorshipLevel 3Survivorship

At KGMU Lucknow (Shukla 2025), what proportion of 75 ALL patients on BFM-95 did not complete induction?

  1. A75.0%
  2. B50.0%
  3. C0%
  4. D1.0%
  5. E10.6%
Show answer

Answer: E. Abandonment, resistant infections, cost and limited transplant access shape every decision in Indian ALL care (Ganesan 2021); plan support at diagnosis.

Review: section 08

Q90TreatmentLevel 3Systemic therapy

Which statement about older adult regimens for Ph-negative ALL before paediatric-inspired protocols is correct?

  1. AThey gave 90% survival in young adults
  2. BThey are still preferred for patients under 40
  3. CThey were never used in adults with ALL
  4. D5-year survival near 30% in young adults
  5. EThey avoided asparaginase toxicity and were better
Show answer

Answer: D. Paediatric-inspired, asparaginase-rich regimens now cure 60–80% up to about 40 years (DFCI: CR 85%).

Review: section 06

Prepared and reviewed by Dr. Haritha Chiramana for teaching. Facts compiled from current guidelines, primary trials and evidence summaries, written in our own words; drawings are original schematics, not patient images; no doses are included.