Acute Myeloid Leukaemia: MCQ bank

About what share of acute leukaemias in adults is acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)?

1. AAbout 50%
2. BAbout 80%
3. CAbout 20%
4. DUnder 10%
5. ENearly 100%

Which statement about the white count at diagnosis of AML is correct?

1. AIt is always above 100,000/µL at diagnosis
2. BIt is normal only in APL, never in other AML
3. CA count under 5,000/µL rules out AML
4. DIt is the test that makes the diagnosis
5. EA normal or low count does not exclude AML

This schematic blood film is from a 55-year-old with fever and bruises. What is the pink rod-shaped inclusion marked by the arrow?

1. AA Döhle body
2. BA Howell-Jolly body
3. CToxic granulation
4. DA Russell body
5. EAn Auer rod

Which flow cytometry markers confirm myeloid lineage in a new acute leukaemia?

1. ACD13, CD33, CD117 and MPO
2. BCD20, CD5 and CD23
3. CCD138 and CD38
4. DCD3, CD7 and CD5
5. ECD19, CD10, CD22 and CD79a

For most AML without a defining genetic lesion, what marrow or blood blast count is needed for the diagnosis?

1. A30% or more
2. B20% or more
3. C50% or more
4. D5% or more
5. E10% or more

This schematic drawing shows the gums of a 48-year-old with a new acute leukaemia. Which AML type does it suggest?

1. AAML with t(8;21)
2. BAcute promyelocytic leukaemia
3. CPure erythroid leukaemia
4. DMonocytic AML
5. EChronic myeloid leukaemia in chronic phase

Which is a recognised cause of AML?

1. AEarlier infectious mononucleosis
2. BEarlier alkylating chemotherapy
3. CLong-term low-dose aspirin use
4. DChronic hepatitis C infection
5. ELong-standing iron deficiency

A mass biopsied from the orbit shows sheets of myeloid blasts; the marrow has 6% blasts. How is this classified?

1. AA lymphoma until proved otherwise
2. BMDS, because marrow blasts are under 20%
3. CA small round cell tumour of the orbit
4. DAML (myeloid sarcoma), whatever the marrow
5. EA benign reactive inflammatory lesion

A 26-year-old has gum bleeding, a low fibrinogen and many granular cells on the smear. When should ATRA be started?

1. AAfter the bleeding has stopped
2. BAfter the bone marrow report
3. CAt once, the same day, on suspicion of APL
4. DOnly if the white count is above 10,000/µL
5. EOnly after PML::RARA is confirmed

Which genetic lesion defines acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL)?

1. At(9;22) BCR::ABL1
2. Bt(15;17) PML::RARA
3. Cinv(16) CBFB::MYH11
4. Dt(9;11) MLLT3::KMT2A
5. Et(8;21) RUNX1::RUNX1T1

What does "7+3" induction mean?

1. A7 weeks of tablets followed by 3 weeks off
2. B7 cycles of azacitidine with 3 of venetoclax
3. C7 days of anthracycline with cytarabine on days 1–3 only
4. D7 days of ATRA with 3 days of arsenic
5. E7 days of cytarabine with an anthracycline on days 1–3

A fit 45-year-old has AML with a FLT3 mutation. What is added to 7+3 induction?

1. AImatinib or dasatinib
2. BRituximab or obinutuzumab
3. CMidostaurin or quizartinib
4. DATRA or arsenic trioxide
5. EVenetoclax or azacitidine

Which drug is added to induction for CD33-positive core-binding-factor AML?

1. AMidostaurin
2. BBlinatumomab
3. CArsenic trioxide
4. DIvosidenib
5. EGemtuzumab ozogamicin

What is the standard first treatment for an older adult with AML who is unfit for intensive chemotherapy but not frail?

1. AVenetoclax with azacitidine
2. BImatinib
3. CSupportive care only, with no drugs
4. DATRA with arsenic trioxide
5. E7+3 induction

What is the preferred induction for low- or intermediate-risk APL (white count 10,000/µL or less)?

1. AATRA with arsenic trioxide
2. B7+3 without ATRA
3. CAllogeneic transplant
4. DATRA alone
5. EVenetoclax with azacitidine

A patient on induction has a temperature of 38.6°C and neutrophils of 200/µL. What is the first step?

1. AParacetamol now and review on the morning round
2. BWait 24 hours for the blood culture results before antibiotics
3. CGranulocyte transfusion before any antibiotic
4. DStart an antifungal only, with no antibiotic
5. ECultures, then an antipseudomonal beta-lactam within 60 min

A breathless patient has a white count of 200,000/µL and haemoglobin of 6 g/dL. What should be avoided if possible?

1. AStarting induction
2. BIntravenous fluids
3. CPlatelet transfusion if bleeding
4. DHydroxyurea
5. EA rapid red cell transfusion

For a patient at high risk of tumour lysis, which drug is given with intravenous fluids, after checking for G6PD deficiency?

1. AFurosemide
2. BSodium bicarbonate
3. CAllopurinol alone
4. DRasburicase
5. ECalcium gluconate

What happens to most patients in complete remission who receive no post-remission therapy?

1. AThey are cured
2. BHalf are cured without further treatment
3. CThey relapse
4. DThey develop MDS but not AML
5. EThey develop CML

A fit 40-year-old with adverse-risk AML reaches first complete remission. What is the usual next step?

1. AAllogeneic transplant in first remission
2. BTwo years of ATRA maintenance
3. COral azacitidine maintenance alone
4. DAutologous stem cell transplant
5. ENo further treatment, with close follow-up

Which genetic finding places AML in the ELN 2022 favourable group?

1. ATP53 mutation
2. Bt(6;9) DEK::NUP214
3. CA complex karyotype
4. DMonosomy 7
5. Et(8;21) RUNX1::RUNX1T1

How is a TP53 mutation in AML best described?

1. AAdverse in every risk model
2. BCured by ATRA
3. CWithout prognostic meaning
4. DFavourable with intensive chemotherapy
5. EFavourable with venetoclax

A patient on ATRA for APL develops fever, breathlessness and weight gain. Which drug is started at once?

1. AHeparin
2. BDexamethasone
3. CFurosemide alone
4. DErythropoietin
5. EVancomycin alone

Which is a recognised late effect of AML treatment?

1. ALoss of hearing from daunorubicin
2. BHeart damage from anthracyclines
3. CDiabetes from 7+3
4. DLiver cirrhosis from ATRA
5. EChronic kidney stones from cytarabine

In English data (2001–2006), what was the main factor by which 5-year survival from AML fell?

1. AAge at diagnosis
2. BBlood group
3. CHeight
4. DPlace of birth
5. ESex

Where is a bone marrow sample taken in suspected AML?

1. AAnterior tibia, as in adults generally
2. BSternum, for both aspirate and biopsy
3. CPosterior iliac crest
4. DA vertebral body, under CT guidance
5. EThe femoral head, under anaesthesia

When is a lumbar puncture done in an adult with newly diagnosed AML?

1. AIn APL, on the first day
2. BOnly after transplant
3. COnly for neurological symptoms
4. DBefore every cycle of chemotherapy
5. EIn every patient at diagnosis

In the Vellore series of 380 patients with non-APL AML, why did most not start standard treatment?

1. AAdvanced age
2. BLack of money
3. CLack of a diagnosis
4. DRefusal of transfusion
5. EPreference for herbal medicine

Which tests are sent at once in every suspected case of AML to look for DIC?

1. ASerum protein electrophoresis
2. BHbA1c and a lipid profile
3. CPT, aPTT, fibrinogen and D-dimer
4. DTroponin and creatine kinase
5. ESerum ferritin and transferrin

A 35-year-old has had "viral fever" for 3 weeks with pallor and new bruises. What is the right test today?

1. AA chest X-ray only
2. BA dengue test and a review in a week
3. CA complete blood count with a smear
4. DAnother course of oral antibiotics
5. EA vitamin B12 level only

A marrow shows 12% blasts with t(8;21) RUNX1::RUNX1T1. What is the diagnosis?

1. AMDS/AML
2. BMDS with excess blasts
3. CAML
4. DCML in blast phase
5. EA reactive marrow after infection

A marrow has 8% blasts and an NPM1 mutation. How does the WHO 5th edition classify it?

1. AClonal haematopoiesis only
2. BAML with mutated NPM1
3. CMDS with low blasts
4. DA normal marrow for age
5. EMDS/AML (ICC term)

Under ICC 2022, how is a marrow with 15% blasts and no defining genetic lesion classified?

1. AAcute leukaemia of ambiguous lineage
2. BMDS/AML
3. CMyeloproliferative neoplasm
4. DMDS with low blasts
5. EAML

A patient with a white count of 250,000/µL has a potassium of 7.2 mmol/L but a normal ECG. What should you do first?

1. AIgnore it, as high counts never affect potassium
2. BGive insulin-dextrose and calcium at once
3. CRecheck potassium on a heparinised plasma sample
4. DGive a potassium binder and stop fluids
5. EStart urgent haemodialysis

This schematic blood film is from a 28-year-old with gum bleeding and a fibrinogen of 90 mg/dL. What is the immediate step?

1. AInsert a central line for induction today
2. BStart heparin for the clotting disorder
3. CLumbar puncture to look for CNS disease first
4. DStart ATRA now, before PML::RARA is confirmed
5. EWait for FISH results before any treatment

Which transfusion targets are used during induction for APL?

1. APlatelets only for bleeding; fibrinogen not measured
2. BPlatelets ≥150,000/µL; fibrinogen >400 mg/dL
3. CPlasma only, with no platelet transfusion at all
4. DPlatelets ≥10,000/µL; no fibrinogen target needed
5. EPlatelets ≥30,000–50,000/µL; fibrinogen >150 mg/dL

APL is confirmed in a 32-year-old with a white count of 14,000/µL. Which induction fits?

1. AATRA + arsenic alone, exactly as for low risk
2. B7+3 alone, with ATRA kept for relapse only
3. CHigh-risk treatment: ATRA with an anthracycline
4. DVenetoclax with azacitidine as first induction
5. EArsenic alone, without ATRA, until counts fall

On day 9 of ATRA and arsenic for APL, a patient has fever, breathlessness, a 6 kg weight gain and this schematic chest X-ray. What is the best plan?

1. ADexamethasone now; usually continue the drugs
2. BStop ATRA and arsenic permanently today
3. CIncrease ATRA to speed up differentiation
4. DTreat as pneumonia with antibiotics alone
5. EDiuretics only, and review again tomorrow

A fit 66-year-old develops AML 5 years after chemotherapy for breast cancer (intermediate-risk genetics). Which induction is preferred?

1. AATRA with arsenic
2. B7+3 with gemtuzumab
3. CLow-dose cytarabine
4. DCPX-351
5. EImatinib with 7+3

A 30-year-old with AML has a RUNX1 variant at about half the reads on NGS, and an aunt had leukaemia. A sibling is the planned donor. What must be done first?

1. ACheck if the variant is germline; test the sibling
2. BCancel transplant and give chemotherapy only
3. CIgnore it, since RUNX1 variants are never inherited
4. DProceed with the sibling as donor without tests
5. EUse the patient's own stem cells (autologous)

A 35-year-old with NPM1-mutated AML (no FLT3-ITD) is in remission with negative MRD. What is suggested?

1. AOral azacitidine only, without consolidation
2. BAllogeneic transplant in first remission for all
3. CNo further treatment after induction
4. DConsolidation; transplant only if MRD persists or rises
5. EATRA maintenance for two years after induction

For a 45-year-old with intermediate-risk AML in first remission, what decides between consolidation and transplant?

1. AMRD, donor availability and transplant risk
2. BSex and ABO blood group of the patient
3. CThe number of transfusions in induction
4. DThe white count at diagnosis, on its own
5. EWhether Auer rods were seen on the film

Who should be offered oral azacitidine maintenance after consolidation, as in QUAZAR?

1. AOnly patients after allogeneic transplant
2. BOnly patients with APL after arsenic
3. CAll patients with favourable-risk AML
4. DChildren with high-risk AML after induction
5. EAge 55 or more, intermediate or adverse risk

A 72-year-old with ECOG 1, Charlson 1 and normal heart, lung, liver and kidney function has AML. Which is correct?

1. ASupportive care is the only reasonable option
2. BAge over 70 means lower-intensity therapy only
3. CShe is frail by definition at this age
4. DShe can be treated as fit for intensive therapy
5. ETransplant is impossible at any age above 70

An unfit 76-year-old has IDH1-mutated AML. Which combination improved survival in AGILE?

1. AMidostaurin with 7+3
2. BIvosidenib with azacitidine
3. CQuizartinib with decitabine
4. DGilteritinib with azacitidine
5. EEnasidenib with cytarabine

A patient on venetoclax with azacitidine is started on posaconazole prophylaxis. What follows?

1. AVenetoclax dose is adjusted (azoles raise levels)
2. BVenetoclax is replaced by 7+3 induction
3. CPosaconazole must never be given with it
4. DAzacitidine is stopped while on posaconazole
5. ENo change is needed to either drug

When is the marrow first checked on venetoclax or ivosidenib combinations?

1. AOnly if the patient feels unwell
2. BNever, because blood counts are enough
3. CBefore each daily dose of venetoclax
4. DEarly in cycle 1 (day 14–21)
5. EOnly after 12 cycles of treatment

AML relapses 10 months after consolidation; FLT3-ITD is now present. Which drug improved survival over salvage chemotherapy?

1. AImatinib
2. BATRA
3. CMidostaurin
4. DIvosidenib
5. EGilteritinib

Relapsed AML has an NPM1 mutation. Which class of drug is now FDA-approved for it?

1. ABCR::ABL1 inhibitors
2. BBTK inhibitors
3. CMenin inhibitors
4. DJAK2 inhibitors
5. EAnti-CD20 antibodies

Relapsed AML has an IDH2 mutation. Which targeted drug is used?

1. AGilteritinib
2. BEnasidenib
3. CGemtuzumab ozogamicin
4. DIvosidenib
5. ERevumenib

Why must the genetic tests be repeated when AML relapses?

1. ARelapse is always a new, unrelated leukaemia
2. BClones evolve, so the target may have changed
3. CLaboratories require it for billing
4. DThe first results expire after 6 months
5. EGenetics never change, but staging does

A patient with AML develops a new facial nerve palsy; CSF shows blasts. What is the right approach?

1. AHigh-dose systemic chemotherapy during cranial RT
2. BWait for nerve recovery before any CNS treatment
3. CIntrathecal therapy alone, with RT only if it fails
4. DCraniospinal RT as the first and only choice
5. EPrompt cranial radiotherapy with intrathecal therapy

A myeloid sarcoma compresses the spinal cord. Which management is right?

1. AHydroxyurea alone, with RT kept for later relapse
2. BObservation until the marrow relapses, then chemotherapy
3. CSurgery alone, with no systemic therapy afterwards
4. DSteroids, urgent MRI, RT and/or decompression, plus systemic therapy
5. ESystemic therapy alone, with no RT or surgery at any stage of care

On day 5 of neutropenic fever a stable patient is still febrile on piperacillin-tazobactam with negative cultures. What next?

1. AAdd an antifungal (4–7 days of unexplained fever)
2. BAdd vancomycin routinely to the regimen
3. CChange to meropenem because of the fever alone
4. DStop all antibiotics while cultures are negative
5. EGive a granulocyte transfusion today

Which antifungal prophylaxis is used during AML induction?

1. AOral nystatin only, throughout induction
2. BFluconazole, or a mould-active azole in second induction
3. CNone until fever appears, then amphotericin for everyone
4. DAmphotericin for every patient from day 1
5. EAn echinocandin, but only after transplant

A patient at high risk of tumour lysis has G6PD deficiency. Which drug must be avoided?

1. ARasburicase
2. BAllopurinol
3. CCalcium gluconate for symptomatic hypocalcaemia
4. DIntravenous saline
5. EHydroxyurea

AML is diagnosed at 9 weeks of pregnancy. What does the module advise?

1. ADelay all treatment until delivery
2. BStart ATRA only
3. CLow-dose cytarabine throughout pregnancy
4. DTermination of pregnancy, then treatment
5. ELeukapheresis until term

A man in remission from NPM1-mutated AML has a rising NPM1 transcript level in blood on two tests. What next?

1. ARepeat the test in 2 years
2. BA marrow examination and plans for relapse
3. CReassurance: blood MRD has no meaning
4. DStop follow-up, as he is in remission
5. EStart ATRA maintenance at once

In hyperleukocytosis where induction must be delayed, which measure lowers the white count?

1. AHigh-dose steroids for three days
2. BRed cell transfusion to dilute the blood
3. CHydroxyurea
4. DPlasma exchange, repeated daily
5. ELeukapheresis alone, without any drug

Which advice suits a person living after AML treatment?

1. AReport fever only if it lasts a week
2. BStay active and social, with sensible precautions
3. CAvoid all other people for five years after treatment
4. DSkip all vaccines after a transplant
5. ENever exercise again after treatment

In RATIFY (midostaurin with 7+3 for FLT3-mutated AML), what was median overall survival?

1. A15 vs 10 months
2. B26 vs 75 months
3. C9.3 vs 5.6 months
4. D75 vs 26 months
5. E32 vs 15 months

In QuANTUM-First (quizartinib for FLT3-ITD AML), what was median overall survival?

1. A24 vs 8 months
2. B75 vs 26 months
3. C15 vs 10 months
4. D25 vs 15 months
5. E32 vs 15 months

In the CPX-351 phase 3 trial (patients aged 60–75 with secondary AML), what was 5-year overall survival?

1. A68% vs 34%
2. B97% vs 77%
3. C18% vs 8%
4. D51% vs 44%
5. E8% vs 18%

In VIALE-A, what were median overall survival and complete remission with venetoclax plus azacitidine versus azacitidine alone?

1. AOS 10 vs 15 months; CR 18% vs 37%
2. BOS 32 vs 15 months; CR 70% vs 40%
3. COS 24 vs 8 months; CR 50% vs 10%
4. DOS 15 vs 10 months; CR 37% vs 18%
5. ENo survival difference

In AGILE, what was median overall survival with ivosidenib plus azacitidine in IDH1-mutated AML?

1. A12 vs 11 months
2. B9.3 vs 5.6 months
3. C24 vs 8 months
4. D75 vs 26 months
5. E15 vs 10 months

In ADMIRAL (relapsed FLT3-mutated AML), which pair of results is correct for gilteritinib vs salvage chemotherapy?

1. AMedian OS 9.3 vs 5.6 months
2. BMedian OS 32 vs 15 months
3. CMedian OS 5.6 vs 9.3 months
4. DNo difference in survival
5. EMedian OS 24 vs 8 months

In APL0406, what was 72-month event-free survival with ATRA plus arsenic versus ATRA plus chemotherapy?

1. A77% vs 97%
2. B68% vs 34%
3. C50% vs 30%
4. D97% vs 77%
5. E99% vs 98%

In QUAZAR, what was median overall survival with oral azacitidine maintenance versus placebo?

1. A75 vs 26 months
2. B25 vs 15 months
3. C48 vs 12 months
4. D9 vs 6 months
5. E15 vs 25 months

In the Short 2020 meta-analysis, what was 5-year overall survival with negative versus positive MRD?

1. A34% vs 68%
2. B50% vs 45%
3. C18% vs 8%
4. D90% vs 10%
5. E68% vs 34%

Under ELN 2024 for venetoclax plus azacitidine, what was median survival in the favourable, intermediate and adverse groups?

1. A5.5, 12.1 and 26.5 months
2. B12.1, 26.5 and 5.5 months
3. C36, 24 and 12 months
4. D75, 26 and 15 months
5. E26.5, 12.1 and 5.5 months

In PARADIGM (fit adults), how did azacitidine-venetoclax compare with 7+3?

1. AMore remissions and transplants, similar survival
2. BBetter overall survival by about 20% at three years
3. CIdentical remission and transplant rates
4. DFewer remissions but much less toxicity
5. EMore early deaths and fewer transplants

In relapsed IDH2-mutated AML (Stein 2017), which results are reported for enasidenib?

1. ANo responses
2. BCR 97%, median OS not reached
3. CCR 19%, median OS 9 months
4. DCR 34%, median OS 9.3 months
5. ECR 70%, median OS 32 months

What did ziftomenib achieve in its approval study of 112 adults with relapsed NPM1-mutated AML?

1. ACR + CRh 75%
2. BCR 5%
3. CNo responses
4. DCR + CRh 21%
5. ECR 97%

What did the Hills 2014 meta-analysis show for gemtuzumab ozogamicin with induction?

1. ABenefit only in adverse-risk AML, none in CBF AML
2. BBenefit only in APL, with no gain in other AML
3. CMore relapses and deaths with gemtuzumab added
4. DNo survival benefit in any genetic risk group
5. EFewer relapses and better survival, most in CBF AML

What did Fernandez 2009 show about induction in younger adults?

1. AIdarubicin was harmful
2. BAnthracyclines added nothing
3. CHigher daunorubicin exposure improved outcomes
4. DCytarabine for 3 days was as good as 7
5. EInduction can be omitted with good-risk genetics

At AIIMS, 480 patients aged 8–60 treated with 3+7 and high-dose cytarabine had what induction mortality?

1. A40%
2. B60%
3. C5%
4. D18.4%
5. E1%

In 102 patients with APL at SGPGIMS Lucknow (2014–2024), which finding is correct?

1. AInduction mortality about 1%, as in clinical trials
2. BAll deaths were caused by differentiation syndrome
3. CInduction mortality 24.5%; support limited by shortages
4. DNo patient received ATRA during induction
5. EMedian age 65, with most patients at low risk

How do early deaths in APL compare between clinical trials with early ATRA and population registries?

1. AAbout 1% in both
2. BAbout 29% in trials vs 3.7% in population registries
3. CAbout 3.7% in trials vs up to 29% in registries
4. DAbout 50% in both
5. ERegistries report fewer deaths than trials do

At an Indian tertiary cancer centre (Jain 2020), what proportion of AML patients grew multidrug-resistant organisms during induction?

1. A55%
2. BNone, with prophylaxis
3. C15%
4. D90%
5. E5%

In England (2001–2006), what was 5-year survival from AML at age 70–79?

1. AAbout 13%
2. BAbout 50%
3. CAbout 70%
4. DAbout 3%
5. EAbout 33%

What did Ganzel 2021 find about CNS involvement at diagnosis of adult AML?

1. AFound in about 1–3%; it does not by itself worsen outcome
2. BIt always requires craniospinal RT
3. CIt doubles the risk of death
4. DFound in about half of patients
5. EIt is an indication for routine prophylaxis in all adults

According to TCGA 2013, about how many mutations does an AML genome carry on average?

1. AAbout 1,000, most of them in AML genes
2. BExactly one driver and no other change
3. CAbout 13,000 across the genome
4. DNone: only translocations drive AML
5. EAbout 13, about five in AML genes

Why can IDH inhibitors cause differentiation syndrome?

1. AThey destroy CD33-positive blasts very fast
2. BThey lift the block caused by 2-hydroxyglutarate
3. CThey inhibit FLT3 signalling in the blasts
4. DThey release potassium from leukaemic cells
5. EThey deplete fibrinogen and trigger DIC

About how often does differentiation syndrome occur with different drugs?

1. AOnly with ATRA in APL, and never with other drugs
2. BOnly after allogeneic transplant, whatever the drug
3. CAbout 3% (APL), up to 20% (IDH/menin), about 25% (FLT3)
4. DAbout 25% (APL), up to 20% (IDH/menin), about 3% (FLT3)
5. EAbout 80% with every drug that causes differentiation

Which MRD method suits NPM1-mutated AML, as shown by Ivey 2016?

1. AQuantitative PCR
2. BMonthly karyotype
3. CPET-CT
4. DSerum LDH trend
5. EMarrow morphology alone

How do myeloablative and reduced-intensity conditioning compare for AML transplant?

1. AMyeloablative is better for relapse, deaths and survival
2. BMyeloablative: fewer relapses, more deaths; similar survival
3. CThey differ only in cost, not in any outcome
4. DReduced intensity is never used for AML transplant
5. EReduced intensity gives fewer relapses than myeloablative

After an ATO-containing regimen and molecular remission in APL, how often does relapse occur, and what is done?

1. A5–10% (20–30% if high risk); ATRA + arsenic, then auto-HCT
2. BAbout 1%; ATRA maintenance is then given for life
3. CAbout 80%; palliative care is the usual approach
4. DNever; no further PCR follow-up is ever needed
5. EAbout 50%; allogeneic transplant in every relapsed case

What did the CMC Vellore studies (Mathews 2006, 2010) show in newly diagnosed APL?

1. AChemotherapy alone beats arsenic
2. BATRA is ineffective in Indian patients
3. CAPL cannot be cured without transplant
4. DAPL is very rare in India
5. EDurable remissions with arsenic alone

What is the evidence for leukapheresis in hyperleukocytosis (Oberoi 2014)?

1. AIt prevents tumour lysis
2. BIt halves early mortality
3. CIt replaces induction chemotherapy
4. DIt is mandatory above 50,000/µL
5. ENo proven benefit on its own

In what proportion of AML/MDS in young adults may an inherited predisposition be the cause?

1. AUnder 1%
2. BAbout 50%
3. CAll cases
4. D10–20%
5. EAbout 80%