For health professionals. This section uses clinical terms and is general education for doctors, nurses and students, not advice for an individual patient. Patients and families: please read our patient guides instead, Cancer Myth Busters · Understanding your cancer report · Living through cancer treatment, or speak with your own doctor.
90 clinical-vignette questions in three levels: 30 basics, 30 applied and innovative, and 30 challenging (23 Diagnosis, 60 Treatment, 7 Survivorship; 4 built on schematic imaging, endoscopy or histology drawings). Practise question by question with instant marking, or take a timed mock test with a result summary by topic, level and section. You can also print the page as a booklet.
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Timed mock test. Random questions, about 80 seconds each (30 questions in 40 minutes). Answers stay hidden until you submit or time runs out; then you get a score by topic, level and section.
Level 1 · Basics
Core facts for NEET-PG and USMLE Step 1–2: histology, risk factors, presentation, staging and first-line principles.
Q1DiagnosisLevel 1At a glance
Which genetic change defines chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)?
AJAK2 V617F point mutation
Bt(9;22) making BCR::ABL1
Ct(15;17) making PML::RARA
Dt(8;21) making RUNX1::RUNX1T1
Et(14;18) joining IGH to BCL2
Show answer
Answer: B. The Philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22)(q34;q11.2), joins BCR to ABL1. One fusion gene drives the disease, and it is the target of every tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI).
Answer: E. The fusion makes a constitutively active ABL1 tyrosine kinase. TKIs block this kinase; asciminib binds a different site (the myristoyl pocket) from the others (the ATP site).
This schematic blood film is from a 45-year-old with a white count of 150,000/µL and a large spleen. Which description fits it best?
AGranulocytes at every stage, with basophils
BLymphocytes with hair-like cytoplasmic projections
CNeutrophils with toxic granules and Döhle bodies
DSmall mature lymphocytes and smudge cells
EUniform blasts containing Auer rods
Show answer
Answer: A. Chronic-phase CML shows every stage from myeloblast to neutrophil, more myelocytes than metamyelocytes, basophilia (always) and often eosinophilia, with blasts usually under 2%.
About what proportion of people with CML have no symptoms when it is found?
ANearly all
BUp to half
CAbout 9 in 10
DFewer than 1 in 20
EAbout 1 in 10
Show answer
Answer: B. Up to half are diagnosed from a routine blood count. When present, symptoms include fatigue (34%), weight loss (20%), sweats and abdominal fullness (15% each).
Which physical sign is most typical of chronic-phase CML?
AGum hypertrophy
BGeneralised lymphadenopathy
CSkin nodules
DSplenomegaly
EJaundice
Show answer
Answer: D. The spleen is palpable in about half to three-quarters of patients, causing early satiety or left-sided pain. Nodes, skin or soft-tissue masses suggest a later phase.
A 30-year-old with pneumonia has a white count of 45,000/µL. Which finding favours a leukemoid reaction over CML?
ABasophilia on the film
BToxic granules and Döhle bodies in neutrophils
CMore myelocytes than metamyelocytes
DA spleen palpable 8 cm below the costal margin
EA platelet count of 700,000/µL
Show answer
Answer: B. Toxic granulation and Döhle bodies point to infection or inflammation; leukemoid reactions are rarely as high as CML and are BCR::ABL1 negative. Basophilia, a myelocyte bulge and a big spleen favour CML.
This schematic shows chromosomes 9 and 22 from a marrow karyotype. What is the shortened chromosome marked by the arrow called?
AA derivative chromosome 7
BAn isochromosome 17q
CA ring chromosome 22
DThe Philadelphia chromosome
EA double-minute chromosome
Show answer
Answer: D. The reciprocal translocation moves ABL1 from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22, leaving a short der(22): the Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome. More than 90% of patients show it on banding.
Which test confirms the diagnosis of CML in a blood sample?
AFlow cytometry for CD34
BSerum vitamin B12 level
CBCR::ABL1 by RT-PCR (or FISH)
DLeucocyte alkaline phosphatase score
EJAK2 V617F mutation testing
Show answer
Answer: C. CML is confirmed by t(9;22) on banding or FISH and/or BCR::ABL1 by RT-PCR, in blood or marrow. The transcript type and a baseline on the International Scale should be recorded.
BCR::ABL1 is positive in the blood. Why is a bone marrow examination still advised at diagnosis?
ATo exclude tuberculosis of the bone marrow
BTo define the phase and find extra chromosomes
CTo measure iron stores before starting treatment
DTo obtain the platelet count needed for ELTS
ETo confirm that BCR::ABL1 is really present
Show answer
Answer: B. Blood PCR confirms CML, but marrow morphology (blasts) and karyotype (extra chromosomes) decide the phase and the risk. A marrow is omitted only when the result would not change treatment.
Answer: E. The EUTOS long-term survival (ELTS) score uses age, spleen size in cm, blood blasts and platelets. It was built on TKI-treated patients and best predicts death from CML; ELN 2025 prefers it to Sokal, Euro and EUTOS.
Why should the spleen be measured and samples sent before hydroxyurea is started?
AHydroxyurea causes splenic rupture
BThe spleen grows during hydroxyurea
CThe ELTS score is valid only on untreated values
DHydroxyurea prevents a later TKI from working
EHydroxyurea makes BCR::ABL1 undetectable
Show answer
Answer: C. ELTS needs untreated spleen size, blasts and platelets. Hydroxyurea itself does not affect later milestones, but the risk score is lost if values are recorded after it.
BBCR::ABL1 below 10% on the International Scale at 3 months of treatment
CNormal haemoglobin and no symptoms, whatever the size of the spleen or the platelet count
DNo Philadelphia-positive metaphases among 20 or more marrow cells counted
EWBC <20,000/µL with any platelet count, blasts under 5% and a spleen of any size
Show answer
Answer: A. Complete haematological response is the first goal of treatment. No Ph-positive metaphases is a complete cytogenetic response; ≤10% at 3 months is a molecular milestone.
Which statement about the first TKI in chronic-phase CML is correct?
AImatinib, a 2G TKI or asciminib give similar long-term survival
BImatinib is no longer recommended for any patient
CPonatinib is the preferred first TKI for most patients
DSecond-generation TKIs add about 10% to overall survival
EInterferon should be added to every first-line TKI
Show answer
Answer: A. 2G TKIs and asciminib give faster and deeper responses and fewer transformations than imatinib, but no overall survival gain. Comorbidity, risk score, goals and cost decide the choice.
Which TKI binds the myristoyl pocket of ABL1 rather than the ATP-binding site?
ADasatinib
BImatinib
CBosutinib
DNilotinib
EAsciminib
Show answer
Answer: E. Asciminib is an allosteric (STAMP) inhibitor. Because it binds a different site, it works against many ATP-site mutations, including T315I, but myristoyl-pocket mutations resist it.
Pleural effusion is a characteristic side effect of which TKI?
ANilotinib
BAsciminib
CBosutinib
DImatinib
EDasatinib
Show answer
Answer: E. Dasatinib causes pleural and pericardial effusions and, rarely, pulmonary arterial hypertension. It also impairs platelet function and can prolong the QTc.
For which patient is nilotinib generally best avoided?
AA 45-year-old with lactose intolerance
BA 50-year-old with Crohn disease
CA 30-year-old with a past pleural effusion
DA 58-year-old with diabetes and a past stroke
EA 25-year-old with no other illness
Show answer
Answer: D. Nilotinib causes arterial occlusive disease, raised glucose and cholesterol, QTc prolongation and pancreatitis. It is avoided with diabetes, high cardiovascular risk or a previous vascular event. A past effusion argues against dasatinib; bowel disease against bosutinib.
Which side effect is most typical of bosutinib, mainly in the first weeks?
APleural effusion
BGynaecomastia
CDiarrhoea
DPeriorbital oedema
EPeripheral arterial occlusion
Show answer
Answer: C. Bosutinib commonly causes early diarrhoea and raised liver enzymes; some start low and escalate. It is avoided with bowel, liver or kidney disease.
How often should BCR::ABL1 (IS) be measured on a TKI until MMR is reached?
AAt least every 3 months
BOnly at 12 months
COnce a year
DOnly when the blood count changes
EEvery week
Show answer
Answer: A. PCR is done at least every 3 months until MMR is achieved and confirmed, then every 3–6 months (UpToDate) or 4–6 months (ELN 2025); more often if values fluctuate or rise.
Which set of results is "favourable" under ELN 2025 at 3, 6 and 12 months?
A≤1%, ≤0.1% and ≤0.01%
BUndetectable at every time point
C≤50%, ≤10% and ≤1%
D≤10%, ≤10% and ≤10%
E≤10%, ≤1% and ≤0.1%
Show answer
Answer: E. Favourable milestones are BCR::ABL1 ≤10% at 3 months, ≤1% at 6 months and ≤0.1% (MMR) at 12 months. ELN 2025 renamed optimal/warning/failure as favourable/warning/unfavourable.
BCR::ABL1 is rising on imatinib. What is the first thing to check?
AMissed tablets and interacting drugs
BA whole-body PET-CT scan
CHLA typing of brothers and sisters
DA kinase-domain mutation by NGS
EA repeat bone marrow biopsy and karyotype
Show answer
Answer: A. "Resistance" is often missed tablets. Ask kindly and specifically about adherence and new medicines before ordering mutation tests or switching.
Among carefully selected patients who stop their TKI, about what proportion stay in treatment-free remission?
AAbout 20%
B40–50%
CAbout 75%
DNearly all
EUnder 5%
Show answer
Answer: B. About 40–50% of eligible patients stay off treatment. Most who relapse lose MMR in the first 6–8 months and regain their response when the TKI is restarted.
A woman with chronic-phase CML becomes pregnant and her counts rise in the first trimester. Which treatment can be used at any stage of pregnancy?
AInterferon
BImatinib
CNilotinib
DHydroxyurea
EDasatinib
Show answer
Answer: A. All TKIs are potentially teratogenic until organogenesis is complete (around week 16). Interferon, including pegylated forms, can be used at any time; imatinib or nilotinib only after week 16; dasatinib is avoided throughout.
A man taking imatinib wants to father a child. What is the advice?
ASwitch to interferon until conception
BStop the TKI for 3 months before trying
CContinue the TKI while trying to conceive
DStore sperm and avoid natural conception
EStop the TKI and use hydroxyurea instead
Show answer
Answer: C. There is no convincing effect of TKIs on male fertility or on their children: in 428 pregnancies of partners of men on TKIs, 93.5% were live births with 2.5% congenital abnormalities.
Answer: C. Myeloid blast phase is treated like AML (intensive induction or, in older patients, a hypomethylating agent ± venetoclax) with a TKI, followed by allogeneic transplant where possible.
In Indian studies, up to what share of patients with CML do not take their TKI regularly?
AAbout 1 in 20
BUp to one-third
CAbout three-quarters
DUnder 1 in 50
EAlmost all
Show answer
Answer: B. Non-adherence affects up to one-third of Indian patients and shortens event-free survival. Adherence is treatment: ask at every visit, involve the family and link to assistance programmes.
How does the age at diagnosis in Indian hospital series compare with Western registries?
AThe same (median 66 years)
BMostly children under 15
CAbout a decade younger (median 32–42 years)
DAbout a decade older (median 75 years)
EOnly people over 80
Show answer
Answer: C. Indian hospital series report median ages of 32–42, with more symptoms, bigger spleens and more high-risk scores, compared with 55 in Europe and 66 in the US. The Mumbai population registry shows the usual peak at 55–74, so referral patterns explain part of the gap.
Which finding at diagnosis should make you think of MDS or an advanced phase rather than typical chronic-phase CML?
ABasophilia on the film
BA platelet count of 700,000/µL
CA low platelet count
DEosinophilia on the film
EA white count of 300,000/µL
Show answer
Answer: C. Low platelets are uncommon in chronic phase. High platelets (over 600,000/µL in 15–30%), basophilia, eosinophilia and very high white counts are typical of chronic phase.
A 40-year-old has a white count of 120,000/µL with myelocytes and basophils and a 10 cm spleen. Routine quantitative PCR for p210 and p190 is negative. What next?
AStart imatinib without further tests
BFISH for BCR::ABL1 with a marrow karyotype
CDiagnose a leukemoid reaction and give antibiotics
DRepeat the same PCR in 3 months
ETreat as polycythaemia vera with hydroxyurea
Show answer
Answer: B. Routine kits detect only p210 and p190; p230 and rare transcripts, and some cryptic fusions, need FISH or a personalised assay. With high suspicion and a negative karyotype, FISH is mandatory.
A man treated for chronic-phase CML for 3 years now has lymphoblasts on his blood film. What should you assume, and do?
AReactive lymphocytosis after infection: no action
BLymphoid blast phase: flow cytometry and lumbar puncture
CA second cancer (CLL): watch and wait without tests
DAn imatinib side effect: reduce the dose of imatinib
EA viral reaction: repeat the blood film in 2 weeks
Show answer
Answer: B. Lymphoblasts in a patient with CML mean lymphoid blast phase until proved otherwise. Lineage by flow cytometry decides treatment (a Ph+ ALL-type regimen with a TKI), and a lumbar puncture is needed.
A marrow at diagnosis shows 14% blasts. How do ICC 2022 and WHO 2022 classify it?
ABoth systems: chronic phase without any risk features
BBoth systems: blast phase, treated like acute leukaemia
CICC: accelerated; WHO: chronic with a high-risk feature
DICC: blast phase; WHO: accelerated phase
EBoth systems: accelerated phase, with no other label
Show answer
Answer: C. ICC keeps three phases (accelerated 10–19% blasts, basophils ≥20%, high-risk extra chromosomes). WHO 2022 has only chronic and blast phase and lists blasts 10–19% as a high-risk feature. Both agree such patients need a more potent TKI and closer monitoring.
What blast percentage defines blast phase in ICC 2022 and WHO 2022, and how did the older ELN criteria differ?
A30% or more in all systems
B5% or more; the older ELN criteria used 10% or more
C50% or more; the older ELN criteria used 30% or more
D20% or more; the older ELN criteria used 30% or more
E10% or more; the older ELN criteria used 20% or more
Show answer
Answer: D. Both modern systems use ≥20% blasts (or extramedullary blast proliferation, or bona fide lymphoblasts). Most trials used the older ELN cut-off of ≥30%, so read trial phase definitions carefully.
A patient's BCR::ABL1 was 0.08% (IS) in laboratory A. A cheaper laboratory B now reports 0.3%. What is the correct step?
ADouble the TKI dose and recheck in a year
BOrder a kinase-domain mutation test straight away
CArrange a bone marrow biopsy and karyotype
DDeclare loss of MMR and switch to another TKI
ERepeat in the original IS laboratory before acting
Show answer
Answer: E. Results are comparable only on the International Scale in a standardised laboratory: one laboratory, one scale. Never switch on one result; repeat near a threshold within 1–2 months.
A 60-year-old with diabetes, a past myocardial infarction and a high ELTS score has chronic-phase CML. Which first-line choice fits best?
ANilotinib, because the ELTS score is high
BImatinib with interferon added from the start
CDasatinib, bosutinib or asciminib, not nilotinib
DInterferon alone, to avoid TKI toxicity
EPonatinib, because the risk score is high
Show answer
Answer: C. High ELTS favours a 2G TKI or asciminib; comorbidity then decides. Nilotinib is avoided with diabetes or vascular disease. Interferon added to a TKI is not recommended, and ponatinib is not a first-line drug.
A patient on dasatinib is started on omeprazole for dyspepsia. What is the concern?
AOmeprazole causes pleural effusion
BDasatinib levels rise to toxic levels
CThe PCR result becomes falsely low
DLess dasatinib is absorbed
EThere is no interaction
Show answer
Answer: D. Acid-suppressing drugs reduce absorption of dasatinib and nilotinib (a dasatinib formulation that tolerates them exists in some markets). Check every new prescription, including azoles, macrolides and QT-prolonging drugs.
When should an ECG be done after starting nilotinib or dasatinib?
AAt baseline and 1–2 weeks after starting
BOnly before stopping treatment
COnce a year
DOnly if the patient has palpitations
EIt is not needed with these TKIs
Show answer
Answer: A. An ECG for the QTc is done at baseline, 1–2 weeks after starting nilotinib or dasatinib, after dose changes and when new QT-prolonging drugs are added; potassium and magnesium are corrected.
This schematic chart shows one patient's BCR::ABL1 (IS) on first-line imatinib. How does ELN 2025 classify the 6-month result?
ATreatment-free remission can be tried
BFavourable: no change needed
CUnfavourable: a switch is preferred
DWarning: a switch may be needed
EMajor molecular response
Show answer
Answer: D. At 6 months, ≤1% is favourable, >1–10% is warning and >10% is unfavourable. A warning result calls for a repeat, questions about missed doses and interacting drugs, and a decision based on the trend and the patient's goals.
Two weeks after starting imatinib, the platelet count has fallen mildly and the patient is well. What is appropriate?
AContinue: early cytopenias reflect the leukaemia clearing
BStop imatinib permanently and switch to another TKI
CBegin a work-up for urgent allogeneic transplant
DStart an erythropoietin-stimulating agent at once
ESwitch to ponatinib because of primary resistance
Show answer
Answer: A. Mild early cytopenias are mostly the leukaemia clearing; continue. Severe ones need a hold or dose reduction. Erythropoietin-stimulating agents are avoided (thrombosis, no benefit).
BCR::ABL1 has risen on two tests and the patient takes every tablet with no interacting drugs. What comes next?
AAdding interferon to the same TKI and continuing
BStopping all treatment and watching the counts
CA drug holiday of 3 months, then repeat the PCR
DIncreasing hydroxyurea alongside the same TKI
EMarrow (blasts, karyotype) and a mutation test
Show answer
Answer: E. After confirming the rise and checking adherence and interactions, look for progression (blasts, extra chromosomes) and kinase-domain mutations, then switch TKI. Mutation testing is not done at diagnosis in chronic phase.
A patient loses response on dasatinib (first line). No mutation is found. Which next step fits current guidance?
ASwitch back to imatinib
BSwitch to nilotinib
CBosutinib, as it always works after dasatinib
DPonatinib or asciminib, and start a donor search
EContinue dasatinib and recheck in a year
Show answer
Answer: D. After a 2G TKI fails, another 2G TKI rarely works; ponatinib or asciminib are preferred. ELN 2025 advises a donor search from resistance to the first 2G TKI.
F317L is found in a patient losing response on dasatinib. Which TKI is NOT expected to work against this mutation?
APonatinib
BDasatinib
CAsciminib
DBosutinib
ENilotinib
Show answer
Answer: B. In the ELN 2025 mutation table, F317L/V/I/C resists dasatinib; nilotinib, bosutinib, ponatinib and asciminib remain options. These are in-vitro data, read with the patient's history.
V299L is found in a patient on bosutinib. Which of these is a suitable next TKI?
ANilotinib
BImatinib at a higher dose
CDasatinib
DBosutinib at the same dose
EImatinib
Show answer
Answer: A. V299L resists dasatinib and bosutinib; nilotinib, ponatinib and asciminib are listed as options. Most kinase-domain mutations resist imatinib.
Four months after stopping a TKI in deep remission, a patient loses MMR. What is the correct response?
AWait for a second positive result 3 months later
BStart ponatinib
CArrange an urgent allogeneic transplant
DRestart the TKI; no mutation test is needed
EOrder a mutation test before restarting
Show answer
Answer: D. Loss of MMR after stopping is the trigger to restart (one result is enough under ELN 2025). Mutation testing is not needed: 90–95% regain their response on the same TKI.
After stopping a TKI, when do most molecular relapses occur?
AAfter 5 years off treatment
BEvenly spread over 10 years
CIn the second year off treatment
DIn the first week after stopping
EWithin the first 6–8 months
Show answer
Answer: E. More than 80% of molecular relapses occur in the first 6–8 months, so PCR is done every 6–8 weeks early on, then every 2 months, then every 3–6 months for life. Late loss of MMR occurs in up to 14% after 2 years.
A 29-year-old woman has been in MR4 for 3 years on imatinib (6 years in total) and wants a pregnancy. What does ELN 2025 advise?
AContinue imatinib throughout the whole pregnancy
BAdvise against pregnancy at any time in the future
CStop the TKI as for TFR, then plan the pregnancy
DSwitch to nilotinib and try to conceive straight away
ESwitch to dasatinib before trying to conceive
Show answer
Answer: C. With MR4 or deeper, women stop as for TFR with close monitoring. Pregnancy should be raised at diagnosis with every woman of child-bearing age; planned pregnancies take time.
A woman in MMR (but not MR4) with regular cycles and good access to testing wants a pregnancy. Which option does ELN 2025 accept?
ASwitch to ponatinib before trying to conceive
BContinue the TKI until the first positive test
CUndergo allogeneic transplant before conceiving
DContinue the TKI throughout the whole pregnancy
EStop the TKI only after the baby is delivered
Show answer
Answer: B. With MMR, women may stop and watch, or (with regular cycles and access to tests) continue until the first positive pregnancy test, then stop. Without MMR the response should be deepened first.
CML is diagnosed at 10 weeks of pregnancy: white count 60,000/µL, low ELTS, no extra chromosomes, no symptoms. What is reasonable?
AStart dasatinib now, as it is the most potent TKI
BWatchful waiting; leukapheresis or interferon if needed
CTermination of the pregnancy in every case
DStart imatinib now, before the counts rise further
EHydroxyurea throughout the rest of the pregnancy
Show answer
Answer: B. With WBC <100,000/µL, low or intermediate ELTS and no extra chromosomes, watchful waiting is reasonable; leukapheresis and/or interferon for symptoms or high counts; aspirin and/or LMW heparin for high platelets. No TKI before week 16.
Which TKI should be avoided throughout pregnancy, even after week 16?
ANone: all are allowed after week 16
BNilotinib
CImatinib
DInterferon (not a TKI)
EDasatinib
Show answer
Answer: E. Imatinib and nilotinib cross the placenta poorly and can be used after week 16 if control is lost. Dasatinib reached 75% of maternal levels in the one case measured and is avoided throughout.
A mother on imatinib after delivery asks about breastfeeding. What is the advice?
ABreastfeed only on alternate days
BBreastfeeding is safe on imatinib only
CSwitch to dasatinib to breastfeed
DNo TKI while breastfeeding
EBreastfeeding is safe on any TKI
Show answer
Answer: D. ELN 2025 advises no TKI while breastfeeding. The choice between breastfeeding and restarting treatment is planned in advance with the mother.
A fit 40-year-old with CML presents in myeloid blast phase with no prior TKI. What is the best plan?
ATKI with intensive AML induction, then transplant
BHydroxyurea and palliative care from the start
CImatinib alone, continued for the rest of life
DIntensive AML chemotherapy without any TKI
ETreatment-free remission once induction ends
Show answer
Answer: A. In 104 patients, 5-year OS was 30% with a TKI plus intensive chemotherapy, 28% with a TKI plus a hypomethylating agent, 13% with a TKI alone and 0% with chemotherapy alone. Imatinib is avoided in blast phase; transplant follows.
In lymphoid blast phase of CML, which combination is used?
AInterferon and hydroxyurea, continued indefinitely
BTKI + Ph+ ALL regimen, lumbar puncture, then transplant
CA TKI alone, without any chemotherapy or transplant
DAML-type induction chemotherapy without a TKI
ERadiotherapy to the spleen and the whole marrow
Show answer
Answer: B. Lymphoid blast phase (about one-third of blast phases) is treated like Ph+ ALL (hyper-CVAD best studied; blinatumomab or inotuzumab with a TKI emerging), with CNS assessment and allogeneic transplant.
In which situation is a lumbar puncture indicated in CML?
ALymphoid blast phase or neurological signs
BEvery patient at diagnosis
CBefore every bone marrow biopsy
DEvery patient before stopping a TKI
ENeurologically well patients in myeloid blast phase
Show answer
Answer: A. A lumbar puncture is done in lymphoid blast phase or with neurological signs, not in neurologically well patients with myeloid blast phase. Dasatinib, bosutinib, nilotinib and ponatinib cross the blood-brain barrier.
A patient presents de novo in accelerated phase. Which statement is correct?
AImatinib is the preferred TKI in this phase
BTransplant is needed before any TKI is given
CNo TKI is effective once accelerated phase is reached
DA 2G TKI is preferred to imatinib; no TFR attempts
ETFR can be tried after 2 years of deep response
Show answer
Answer: D. De novo accelerated phase is treated with a 2G TKI (or ponatinib, or upfront transplant), continued indefinitely; there are no TFR data. BCR::ABL1 <10% at 3 months predicts better survival.
This schematic chest X-ray is from a 55-year-old on dasatinib for 2 years with new breathlessness. What is the most appropriate approach?
ASwitch to imatinib at once without any further assessment
BAssess the effusion, exclude other causes, hold or reduce dasatinib
CContinue dasatinib unchanged and add a diuretic only
DStop all TKIs permanently and watch the counts
EStart anti-tuberculosis treatment empirically for 6 months
Show answer
Answer: B. Effusions on dasatinib need a chest X-ray and exclusion of infection, heart failure, kidney disease and progression. Some need thoracentesis, a drain or pleurodesis, with interruption or dose reduction; persistent problems mean a switch.
Which ongoing checks matter most for a patient on long-term nilotinib?
APulmonary function every 3 months
BBone marrow every 6 months
CBlood pressure, glucose and lipids
DThyroid scans every year
EHearing and vision
Show answer
Answer: C. Cardiovascular risk is highest with ponatinib and nilotinib. Blood pressure, glucose, lipids and symptoms of vascular disease are checked at visits; age, hypertension, diabetes, lipids and smoking add risk whatever the TKI.
A 12-year-old on imatinib for 18 months has slowed growth. Which statement is correct?
AAlways temporary, with full catch-up within 6 months
BA recognised TKI effect: watch height, puberty, thyroid and bone
CUnrelated to the TKI, so no action or follow-up is needed
DA sign that the CML has progressed to blast phase
EA reason to stop imatinib at once and permanently
Show answer
Answer: B. In the German CML-PAED II study, median height fell by 0.35 SD at 12 months and 0.76 SD at 24 months. Children need growth, puberty, thyroid and bone surveillance and endocrinology input.
In ASC4FIRST, what was the MMR rate at 96 weeks with asciminib versus investigator-chosen TKIs?
A96% vs 52%
B37.6% vs 15.8%
C52.0% vs 74.1%
D74.1% vs 52.0%
E44% vs 23%
Show answer
Answer: D. Asciminib also gave event-free survival of 85.6% vs 70.6% and fewer discontinuations; overall survival is not yet reported. FDA approved it first line; EMA only after ≥2 TKIs.
ACompare ponatinib with allogeneic transplant in T315I
BUse ponatinib first line in low-risk chronic phase
CStop ponatinib after 12 months in major molecular response
DStart ponatinib higher, reduce once BCR::ABL1 <1%
ECombine ponatinib with pegylated interferon
Show answer
Answer: D. Response-based reduction balanced efficacy (44%, 29% and 23% below 1% at 12 months by starting dose) against arterial events (10%, 5% and 3%).
In a registry comparison of patients with T315I, what was 48-month survival with ponatinib versus allogeneic transplant?
A30% vs 80%
B73% vs 56%
C20% vs 20%
D95% vs 40%
E56% vs 73%
Show answer
Answer: B. Nicolini 2017 favoured ponatinib in chronic phase with T315I. Omacetaxine is no longer manufactured; olverembatinib is approved only in China.
In EURO-SKI (755 patients), what proportion kept MMR 6 and 12 months after stopping a TKI?
A90% and 85%
B46% and 61%
C100% and 95%
D20% and 10%
E61% and 46%
Show answer
Answer: E. LAST reported 77% at 6 and 71% at 12 months, with less fatigue, depression, diarrhoea and sleep disturbance. Similar results followed nilotinib (ENESTfreedom) and dasatinib (DASFREE).
In DESTINY, what was the treatment-free remission rate after halving the dose for 12 months before stopping, in patients with MR4 or deeper?
A25%
B10%
C95%
D45%
E72%
Show answer
Answer: E. De-escalation before stopping also lets a patient who relapses restart at the reduced dose. Overall, 40–50% of eligible patients stay off treatment.
Which statement about late outcomes after stopping a TKI is correct?
ALate MMR loss in up to 14%; sudden blast phase ≤0.1%
BRelapse never happens after 12 months off treatment
COnce MMR is lost, a second response is unusual
DBlast phase occurs in about 10% of those who stop
EMost relapses happen more than 5 years after stopping
Show answer
Answer: A. Monitoring is the safety net: >80% of relapses come in the first 6–8 months, late loss can occur (Rousselot 2020), and 90–95% regain their response on restarting. A withdrawal syndrome (aches) affects 20–30%.
In CML Study IV (Lauseker 2023), what was 10-year survival in patients still above 10% BCR::ABL1 at 12 months?
AUnder 5%
BAbout 20%
CAbout 55%
DAbout 80%
EAbout 95%
Show answer
Answer: C. Patients who missed the 3-, 6- or 12-month milestones still had about 80% 10-year survival, but only 55% if BCR::ABL1 was still >10% at 12 months. This is why ELN 2025 bases switching on the trend, adherence, comorbidity and goals.
In Marin 2010, what proportion of patients with 90% adherence or more reached MMR at 6 years, compared with those below 90%?
A28% vs 95%
B100% vs 80%
C60% vs 55%
D50% vs 45%
E95% vs 28%
Show answer
Answer: E. No patient with ≤80% adherence reached MMR. Adherence is part of treatment, and in India non-adherence (Ganesan 2011) shortens event-free survival.
In CML Study IV (Saussele 2015), how did 8-year overall survival change across Charlson comorbidity groups?
AIt was the same in all groups
BFrom 80% to 75%
CFrom 94% (Charlson 2) to 46% (7 or more)
DFrom 99% to 95%
EFrom 46% to 94% (rising with comorbidity)
Show answer
Answer: C. Comorbidity now predicts survival more than CML itself for many patients, because most now die of other causes. ELTS best predicts death from CML.
In 104 patients with myeloid blast phase (Saxena 2021), what was 5-year overall survival with a TKI plus intensive chemotherapy?
A0%
B50%
C60%
D30%
E80%
Show answer
Answer: D. 5-year OS was 30% with TKI + intensive chemotherapy, 28% with TKI + a hypomethylating agent, 13% with a TKI alone and 0% with chemotherapy alone. MATCHPOINT (ponatinib + FLAG-IDA) bridged two-thirds back to chronic phase.
In lymphoid blast phase treated with hyper-CVAD plus a TKI (Strati 2014), what was median overall survival with and without allogeneic transplant?
A9 months vs 93 months
BNot reached in either group
C93 months vs 9 months
D60 months vs 48 months
E24 months in both groups
Show answer
Answer: C. Transplant after remission is the main route to long-term survival in blast phase. Lymphoid blast phase makes up about one-third of blast phases.
Among imatinib-exposed pregnancies with known outcome (Pye 2008), about what proportion had fetal abnormalities?
AAbout 50%
BAbout 1%
CAbout 10%
DNone
EAbout 30%
Show answer
Answer: C. Of 180 exposed pregnancies, half with known outcome were normal and about 10% had abnormalities. Risk is assumed from implantation (about 15 days after fertilisation) until about week 16, which is why women stop TKIs.
In the ELN registry of 87 women diagnosed with CML during pregnancy (Chelysheva 2024), what happened?
A76% had a normal childbirth, no excess malformations
BMost women progressed to blast phase in pregnancy
CNearly all women received dasatinib in pregnancy
DMalformations occurred in about half of the babies
EMost pregnancies had to be terminated for safety
Show answer
Answer: A. Treatment was mostly interferon and, after week 16, imatinib. In advanced phase, treatment cannot wait, and termination should be discussed with the woman and her family.
Which transcripts are expected to resist asciminib?
AThose lacking ABL1 exon 2 (e13a3, e14a3)
BAny p190 (e1a2) transcript, whatever the phase
CThe rare p230 (e19a2) transcript in every case
DThe common e13a2 and e14a2 transcripts
EAny transcript carrying the T315I mutation
Show answer
Answer: A. Rare transcripts without ABL1 exon 2 are expected to resist asciminib (ELN 2025). The transcript type also decides how to monitor; e14a2 is associated with more successful TFR.
Which statement about compound kinase-domain mutations is correct?
AThey respond best to imatinib at a standard dose
BThey always respond to bosutinib as second line
CSanger sequencing detects them better than NGS
DThey are found routinely at diagnosis in chronic phase
ESome with T315I resist both ponatinib and asciminib
Show answer
Answer: E. Compound mutations (two in the same molecule) resist most TKIs. NGS finds emerging clones earlier than Sanger sequencing and identifies compound mutations; transplant should be considered.
Under the ELN 2025 mutation table, which TKI is NOT recommended for E255K/V?
ADasatinib
BNilotinib
CPonatinib
DAsciminib
ENone: all four are recommended
Show answer
Answer: B. ELN lists dasatinib, ponatinib and asciminib for E255K/V; nilotinib and bosutinib are not recommended. The UpToDate in-vitro table also lists bosutinib, so read the laboratory report with both tables.
F359V is found in a patient losing response on nilotinib. Which option does the ELN 2025 table recommend?
AContinuing nilotinib
BStopping all TKIs
CAsciminib
DDasatinib
EImatinib at a higher dose
Show answer
Answer: D. For F359V/I/C, ELN lists dasatinib and ponatinib; nilotinib, bosutinib and asciminib are not recommended. (UpToDate also lists bosutinib for F359V.)
Which statement on allogeneic transplant in CML reflects ELN 2025?
AReduced-intensity conditioning is preferred for every patient
BMyeloablative conditioning is preferred where possible
CDonor search should wait until ponatinib has failed
DTKIs must never be given again after transplant
ETransplant of resistant blast phase is advised outside trials
Show answer
Answer: B. Reduced intensity is used for older or less fit patients. A donor search starts at resistance to the first 2G TKI, and transplant referral at resistance to ponatinib and/or asciminib. TKIs and donor lymphocytes treat molecular relapse after transplant.
In de novo accelerated phase treated with dasatinib or nilotinib (Ohanian 2014), what was the complete cytogenetic response rate in 21 patients?
AAbout 90%
BAbout 10%
CNone
DAbout 50%
EAbout 30%
Show answer
Answer: A. A 2G TKI is preferred to imatinib in de novo accelerated phase, continued indefinitely. In transformed accelerated phase, dasatinib after imatinib gave complete haematological responses in 50% and complete cytogenetic responses in 32%.
In the international registry of 535 children (Millot 2026), what was 3-year PFS by ELTS group (low, intermediate, high)?
A99% in all groups
B72.0%, 91.7% and 97.1%
C50%, 40% and 30%
D80%, 60% and 20%
E97.1%, 91.7% and 72.0%
Show answer
Answer: E. 3-year OS was 97.4%. Children have bulky disease, more lymphoid blast crises and slower growth on imatinib, and stopping succeeds less often (28.6% in STOP IMAPED at 6 months).
What did the Tata Memorial series (Parikh 2013; 972 patients, median age 36) show?
AInterferon gave better results than imatinib
BGeneric imatinib gave much worse responses
COS was only 40% at 5 years on imatinib
DMost patients presented in blast phase
EOS 86% at 51 months; generic = innovator
Show answer
Answer: E. Generic imatinib and assistance programmes (GIPAP, Max Foundation) made CML treatable for most Indian patients. ELN 2025 puts generic imatinib at as little as US$200–500 a year.
Prepared and reviewed by Dr. Haritha Chiramana for teaching. Facts compiled from current guidelines, primary trials and evidence summaries, written in our own words; drawings are original schematics, not patient images; no doses are included.